thanks for posting many helps. i want to know why we take cos for perpendicular and sin for parallel not cos for parallel and sin for perpendicular. i appreciate if you answer my rpoble. thanks.
using acceleration is equal to the net force - the coefficient of friction x the normal force, you should show that the normal force is zero which is why you don't need to calculate your coefficient of friction, because in equations where the normal force is not zero its really important to not forget your coefficient of friction!
How is the gravitational force -400 N, if the formula is Fg= (m) (a)? Wouldn't it result to 392N, if we follow this formula? Also, this video was extremely helpful; thank you for the thorough explanations.
I know this is way too late for you, however to potentially help someone else, the gravitational force is not equal to ma, it's equal to mg. g being the gravitational acceleration (9.81 m/s^2). But the force is already given to us as 400 N in the problem. So really this formula just allows us the mass which we got as 40.82 and if you multiply that by g (9.81) you'll get approximately 400 N.
I didn't understand how you calculated the friction. What is the exact meaning of giving coefficient of friction. Why'd you multiply the perpendicular forced to the coefficient of friction? How does that give the value of friction?
Wouldn't it be better to reverse the x axis so positive was to the left (down the ramp), so that the acceleration was a positive value at the end? Otherwise looks like decceleration?
Thank you!!!ive got my M1 on Monday and this has helped me a lot!
You are welcome mike! It's not an easy topic. Good job sticking with it.
You are literally my hero rn and keep up with the good work cause a life saver fr
this is the best i ve ever seen...
Thank you I got very far behind in psychics and this just saved me
Good question. If I didn't give the coefficient of friction, I would have given the force of friction and asked you to solve for the coefficient.
Thanks for the kind words. Please share if it was truly helpful. Keep up the studies!
Such a great help. thanks.
You made it so simple for me! Thanks a lot.
Thanks. Please pass it along. Best wishes in learning.
B
Glad to help. Keep learning amigo!
Awesome video, thanks! Huge help.
This helped me a lot
Appreciate it
That was a great video!
Thank you so much!
Thank You So Much Helps a lot !!!!!!
exactly same thing came in my exam and i smashed it thanks bro
+Henry Chikelu I'm stoked to hear it, great job learning and smashing the exam.
Thanks bro, really helped a lot.
thanks for posting many helps. i want to know why we take cos for perpendicular and sin for parallel not cos for parallel and sin for perpendicular. i appreciate if you answer my rpoble. thanks.
we use fx and fy for the F perpendicular and F parallel. but i understand this more than in class
Legit. Yeah, its easy to use different symbols, but its the concept that matters. Thanks for leaving feedback, keep being awesome!
using acceleration is equal to the net force - the coefficient of friction x the normal force, you should show that the normal force is zero which is why you don't need to calculate your coefficient of friction, because in equations where the normal force is not zero its really important to not forget your coefficient of friction!
How is the gravitational force -400 N, if the formula is Fg= (m) (a)? Wouldn't it result to 392N, if we follow this formula? Also, this video was extremely helpful; thank you for the thorough explanations.
I know this is way too late for you, however to potentially help someone else, the gravitational force is not equal to ma, it's equal to mg. g being the gravitational acceleration (9.81 m/s^2). But the force is already given to us as 400 N in the problem. So really this formula just allows us the mass which we got as 40.82 and if you multiply that by g (9.81) you'll get approximately 400 N.
@@austinchandler3079 why did it become 400n to -400n
THANK YOU!!!
Thanks bro huge help :)
I didn't understand how you calculated the friction. What is the exact meaning of giving coefficient of friction. Why'd you multiply the perpendicular forced to the coefficient of friction? How does that give the value of friction?
So when It's left and downward It's always negative??
thanks budy
sir why is the 400N of force becomes negative when you put it on force of gravity ?
+Jean Philippe Narido
negative sign denotes direction
Wouldn't it be better to reverse the x axis so positive was to the left (down the ramp), so that the acceleration was a positive value at the end? Otherwise looks like decceleration?
The rent is f parallel -Ff not f parallel +F f