Cause they're just there so they're not accelerating and therefore not relevant (the mass isn't going up into the sky or being crushed into the triangle)
23:50 there is something wrong here, the acceleration is negative because block m2 has a greater mass than m1. So the acceleration of the system should act downward .consequently, it should be m2g - T = (-)m2a rather . Thanks for this amazing explanation!
@@yerb. Are you psycho?? M2 has a greater mass than m1!! The trick is that the sin component of the gravity for m2 is less than the gravity of m1 so that's why my expectation was wrong....learn physics rationally rather than sticking to a physician,,, you won't do good if you think like this...
@@HashemAljifri515 I feel like you have a language barrier yes m1 has frictional force and gravity acting on it: T-ukm1gcos30-m1gsin30, we are talking m2. Which is just m2g-T in this instance.
I like the problems you used every time. Please keep updating often. It's been my habit to watch them almost every morning. Thank you very much!
Thanks for your support.
Nice explanation I've been watching alot of tutorials but a lot they like simple question but sir u are the best
Thanks for the support
Very clear way of explaining, Thanks.
Teacher of the warld I like that keep it up dear👍
I like how you explain each concept clearly! Keep updating!
For problem A, is there a reason you didn’t solve for the component vectors in the Y-direction? It seems you only did the X-direction for M1
Direction in which acc is acting, is the direction where components r broken...maybe that's the reason...
Cause they're just there so they're not accelerating and therefore not relevant (the mass isn't going up into the sky or being crushed into the triangle)
Very good
Thanks
23:50 there is something wrong here, the acceleration is negative because block m2 has a greater mass than m1. So the acceleration of the system should act downward .consequently, it should be m2g - T = (-)m2a rather . Thanks for this amazing explanation!
no its correct, m2 is heavier than m1 so m2g-T=m2a
@@yerb. Are you psycho?? M2 has a greater mass than m1!! The trick is that the sin component of the gravity for m2 is less than the gravity of m1 so that's why my expectation was wrong....learn physics rationally rather than sticking to a physician,,, you won't do good if you think like this...
@@HashemAljifri515 you literally just repeated what I said. Calm down buddy you are taking gen physics
@@HashemAljifri515 also m2 has no sin component, it only has downward gravity acting on it… you are hilarious
@@HashemAljifri515 I feel like you have a language barrier yes m1 has frictional force and gravity acting on it: T-ukm1gcos30-m1gsin30, we are talking m2. Which is just m2g-T in this instance.
Thanks so much it really helps
Why do you add a small line to the acceleration vector? What does it signify?
that its a vector
What if the system has nonconstant acceleration? How would I find the value for m2 then? Thanks!
I was given m1, the coefficient of friction, and acceleration and was asked to find m2 by my teacher
inclineD plane!