This was absolutely amazing. Incredible. I was half asleep while watching this and still learned the concept. Absolutely amazing. Just amazing. thank you.
Thank you so much! I have never been good with genetics and would always get questions like this wrong. Yesterday on my NBME I got TWO questions right because of THIS video
Thanks a lot. I just don't get why you multiplied 1/4 by 1/150 and 2/3... If they're asking for the probability that their child would be affected, and assuming the parents are carriers, isn't the answer 1/4 from the Punnett square?
Because total probability in AR diseases is the probability of both carrier parents passing down the mutant allele (1/2 X 1/2 = 1/4) X probability of mother being carrier X probability of father being carrier . If the question says both parents are carriers , then each parent has a probability of “1” . That would be 1/4 X 1X 1= 1/4 (Like you said) However this question requires us to calculate the probability of each parent being a carrier . Thus: 1/4 X 1/150 X 2/3 1/4 = the probability of each parent passing down the mutant allele (1/2 X1/2) 1/150 = probability of father being a carrier 2/3 = probability of mother being a carrier If the question said mother was a carrier , then It would be : 1/4 X 1/150 X 1 1/4 = the probability of each parent passing down the mutant allele (1/2 X1/2) 1/150 = probability of father being a carrier 1 = mother is a carrier Thus as long as the question doesn’t mention either parent being a carrier (then probability would be 1 ) , then it requires us to calculate the probability .
In second question why did we eliminate that the possibility of father is ressesive homozygous? Do we have information that the father is healthy? Thank you very much :)
Thank you for this video!: at 7:51 why is probabiltymom is a carrier 2/3? We said pro. that mom is a carrier is EITHER 1/3 OR 2/3.. right? so why did you choose 2/3 and not 1/3? Thank you!
You are the first person to make sense of this and a bunch of other things in medicine. i hope soon enough you will be popular. God bless
🙌 thanks for the kind words! We're glad you're liking it!
VERY CLINICALLY RELEVANT EVERY DOCTOR ALWAYS TALKS ABOUT THAT THIS IS ALL THEY DO ALL THE TIME EVERYDAY
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You explained better than kaplan trust me !!!
best explanation ive ever came across so far
This was absolutely amazing. Incredible. I was half asleep while watching this and still learned the concept. Absolutely amazing. Just amazing. thank you.
Thank you so much! I have never been good with genetics and would always get questions like this wrong. Yesterday on my NBME I got TWO questions right because of THIS video
Just amazing, perfect explanation, all make sense. I am even teaching using this video as base. Thanks a lot
Thank You. Thank You. Thank You. This explanation was so simple.
Finally p=1 made sense to me..thank you so much
SUPERB
YOU ARE ASTONISHING
WHAT A GREAT SIMPE EASY EXPLANATION BETTER THAN MANY OTHER WEBSITES
YOU REALLY GAVE ME GREAT IMPRESSION ABOUT YOUR WEBSITE
Finally a guy wid quality on this shit
Thanks a lot. I just don't get why you multiplied 1/4 by 1/150 and 2/3... If they're asking for the probability that their child would be affected, and assuming the parents are carriers, isn't the answer 1/4 from the Punnett square?
Because total probability in AR diseases is the probability of both carrier parents passing down the mutant allele (1/2 X 1/2 = 1/4) X probability of mother being carrier X probability of father being carrier .
If the question says both parents are carriers , then each parent has a probability of “1” .
That would be 1/4 X 1X 1= 1/4
(Like you said)
However this question requires us to calculate the probability of each parent being a carrier .
Thus:
1/4 X 1/150 X 2/3
1/4 = the probability of each parent passing down the mutant allele (1/2 X1/2)
1/150 = probability of father being a carrier
2/3 = probability of mother being a carrier
If the question said mother was a carrier , then It would be :
1/4 X 1/150 X 1
1/4 = the probability of each parent passing down the mutant allele (1/2 X1/2)
1/150 = probability of father being a carrier
1 = mother is a carrier
Thus as long as the question doesn’t mention either parent being a carrier (then probability would be 1 ) , then it requires us to calculate the probability .
To the point , well explained ! Don't have words .. great job :)
🙌
The best!! Thankyou so much!!
How did you get .006587 from 2 x 0.9967 x (1/300)?
yea, that's what i was trying to figure out. I kept getting .006645
@@fatimaserrato6929 He used .988 instead of .997, so I guess he made a mistake
In second question why did we eliminate that the possibility of father is ressesive homozygous? Do we have information that the father is healthy? Thank you very much :)
my friend , please could you explain me how did you get 1/150 for husband? thanks in advance
2x1/300 =2/300=1/150
let me know if this helps even though its 4 years later
Thank you for this video!: at 7:51 why is probabiltymom is a carrier 2/3? We said pro. that mom is a carrier is EITHER 1/3 OR 2/3.. right? so why did you choose 2/3 and not 1/3? Thank you!
I think cuz it’s the higher probability
Thank you so much for this video!
Formula of becoming queen -->> princess 👸🏻 😊🙏❤️💋
was super simple and good thank yo u so much
Since they are both from the same population, why is the probability of the wife being a carrier not 1/150?
Thank you very much. please, cover more genetic topics for USMLE!
wait what? theres no calculator on step???
thank you :)
Just magic
Wow! Amazing.
Can you explain why in the second question the husband is 1/150, when in the first question he was 1/300?
In first question husband was carrier 2pq = 2(0.9967×1/300),he took 0.9967=approximately as 1 so
2(1×1/300) = 1/150
Thank you so muchhh~👍💕
Thanks a lot
amazing!!!!!!!
I dont get why in the x linked condition, you took q as 1/10,000. Shouldnt it be q^2 as 1/10,000?
Ohh i got it! Thanks!
Magic
:') thank you