What is the True Meaning of "Psalms, Hymns, and Spiritual Songs"?
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- เผยแพร่เมื่อ 1 พ.ค. 2018
- What does the Bible REALLY mean by "psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs"? What kind of music are we supposed to use to worship God? Find out what the Bible says about this crucial topic in this video.
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Thank you for making this video
You're welcome. I'm glad you liked it. Just let me know if you have any questions.
God bless you
Thank you; God bless you too.
Very good. Keep it up. Solidly exegetical!
Thank you for your encouraging words!
Wow.thank you for this.
But where is the place for this instruction in the Bible "Sing a new song" . And how does this connect with singing directly from scripture?
Thank you very much for your comment. You bring up an interesting point: what about the apparent command in the Psalms to "sing a new song"? I still hope to create a video on this question some day, once I resume adding to this channel. For now, think of it this way: in nearly every case in the Psalms, the command "Sing a new song" appears in the first or one of the first verses of the Psalm. This context is good evidence that the "new song" is the very Psalm the words appear in.
Imagine this silly scenario: I come to your house for a special meal that you have spent all day preparing. We sit down together, give thanks to God for the food, and you say to me, "Darren, have some food". "Hmm..." I think to myself, "He just told me to "have some food". He didn't tell me specifically what food to eat. I wonder what food he was referring to? Since I'm not sure, I guess I'll go to McDonald's and get some takeout." So I leave, go to the McDonald's Drive thru, get some takeout, and come back to your place. As I sit down and begin chowing down on fast food, you say to me in disbelief, "I spend all day preparing a gourmet meal for you, and you go get McDonald's?!" I look up and say to you, "Oh, David...well, you told me to have some food, and I couldn't figure out which food you meant, so I decided to get some of my own. Besides, I'm not in the mood for meatloaf today." Food here represents worship songs, and I'm sure you can tell which food represents which kind of worship songs. So, to summarize, if we read a Psalm, see that it says "Sing a new song", and then come to the conclusion that we actually don't have to sing the Psalms at all, we are acting like Darren in this story.. I hope this response made sense; just let me know if you need further explanation.
This raises a number of honest questions in my mind.
Is there any prohibition in New Testament teaching to sing new songs (hymns as we have from the last few centuries) sung unto the Lord God for His glory and praise, that agree with Scripture?
Or to put it another way, is it disobedience to God to sing songs that agree with Scripture that are not verbatim in the Scripture?
Another question.
If it must be that Christians can only sing psalms (and psalms and psalms, as you explain it), then is it not also necessary to use the music that David wrote and other prophets of his generation? And if not why not? On whose authority can anyone decide?
Many believers who sing psalmody (the psalms) when singing are using tunes that were composed much much later than the apostles ever had.
Isn't this then inconsistent to the exact Biblical meaning of 'music' (singing, and/or with instruments) - even if we just use chanting?
And what then about the isntruments used?
Many believers do not use instruments when they sing psalmody. But the meaning of the Biblical text allows for it in the Old Testament. And it seems that in the Greek, there may be allowance for it according to Strongs'.
Are we then supposed to only use the old testament instruments that David used?
David and some other kings of Judah after him had the priests to play with instruments according to David's instructions.
But this raises another question.
Only priests of God sang the songs in the old testament era, though David did.
Does the instruction of Paul by the Holy Spirit only permit elders, and apostles, prophets, evangelists, shepherds, and teachers to sing?
How can we be certain it does or doesn't exclude all other believers?
If it allows for all other believers to sing "psalms" then this is a widening of the restriction imposed in the OT.
And if this is the case, then why is it not possible for the Holy Spirit to include in the meaning of spiritual songs (hidden to earlier generations) - specifically Biblical truth, to widen so as to allow for the truth of God's Word to be sung in a modern setting?
Many psalms sang by (psalmody) believers today are not even following the Ancient original texts - because we do not have the original texts in our hands (as yet)
And the psalms I have sung from the 'book' don't follow the strict text of the KJV, but are tweaked to fit in the rhyme. Is this then permissble and on what authority is such a decision to be made.
My whole point is that if we are to follow strictly the instructions given by Paul, then it is "IMPOSSIBLE" to follow it exactly as they did, because there is no record of their exact singing (or is there?).
And who is going to decide today, or even from yesteryear 4-500 AD onwards what is precisely "correct" psalmody?
This then brings me to the final point - isn't it permissble to sing to the Lord from the heart, the truth of God's word with the sense of it even if it is not exactly verbatim to the Text as we have it today? Doesn't God accept His children's offering of praise said or sung from a pure heart?
The Holy Spirit was poured out and that outpouring is for all generations as Peter details in Acts 2. The Holy Spirit is not wanting us to follow the letter of the 'law" but rather His directing in all things.
The Holy Spirit will not lead us to do anything contradictory to the turth of Scripture, hence my opening quesiton. I look forward to your comments brother.
(Reply Part 1/3)
Thank you so much for your reply; I'm glad to see you were able to watch my video and reflect on it. I'll try to answer your questions as best as I can.
"Is there any prohibition in New Testament teaching to sing new songs (hymns as we have from the last few centuries) sung unto the Lord God for His glory and praise, that agree with Scripture?
Or to put it another way, is it disobedience to God to sing songs that agree with Scripture that are not verbatim in the Scripture?"
My reply: At 10:42 in the video, I say that the Bible doesn't say it is wrong to sing these song; so no, it is not forbidden. One point I'd add is that the Bible is such a deep, rich book, being written by the omniscient Almighty God, that there's no way a mere human song could ever approach the glory of a Psalm. Certainly, if a devout believer wants to write an uninspired song about something, he may as well write his song about God (what greater theme for a song could a man ever find?), but that doesn't mean we necessarily ought to introduce these songs into our holy worship services - we ought to give God the very best we have, and the very best we have is what he himself has given us.
"If it must be that Christians can only sing psalms (and psalms and psalms, as you explain it), then is it not also necessary to use the music that David wrote and other prophets of his generation? And if not why not? On whose authority can anyone decide?"
My reply: As I said above, it's not that we can only sing Psalms, it's that the command is to sing Psalms; that doesn't mean we can't sing uninspired worship songs, but to do so does not fulfill that particular command. The only way to fulfill the clear command to sing Psalms is by singing Psalms; if you want to sing uninspired songs on top of that, that's optional and it's between you and God. As for your question, the word of God is what has been passed down to us. The music itself was not passed down, and although it too may have been inspired, it must not have been canonical in the same way. In 2 Thessalonians 2:15, Paul says, "So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the traditions that you were taught by us, either by our spoken word or by our letter." The word "tradition", or "paradosis" in Greek, means a teaching or practice that is passed on or handed down from one generation to the next, or in this case from the apostles to their followers. Paul clearly handed down the command to sing "psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs" in both Ephesians and Colossians, but he never handed down the specific music to sing them too. On whose authority can we decide? On the authority of Scripture, and the fact that the Scriptures do not include the music for the Psalms. If God had intended for us to use specific music, he could easily have included such instructions, but he did not, so we don't have to worry about it - we are free to compose our own music to the Psalms, which is a wonderful privilege and nothing to be afraid of.
(I'm not sure I fully understand your next question, so I'll move on to the following one:)
"And what then about the isntruments used?
Many believers do not use instruments when they sing psalmody. But the meaning of the Biblical text allows for it in the Old Testament. And it seems that in the Greek, there may be allowance for it according to Strongs'.
Are we then supposed to only use the old testament instruments that David used?
David and some other kings of Judah after him had the priests to play with instruments according to David's instructions."
My reply: Good questions. Those believers who choose not to use instruments when singing Psalms tend to do so because of what they call the Regulative Principle of Worship. According to this principle, any church practice that is not expressly or implicitly commanded in Scripture is prohibited. As you can imagine, this principle can lead to some serious legalism, and it's well nigh impossible to apply it totally consistently. Believe me: I tried. I went through a very brief phase in my life where I accepted the Regulative Principle as true and attempted to apply it thoroughly to every aspect of the church (in theory, at least; I didn't do any reforms in any local church or anything). I was convinced for a while that using musical instruments in church was wrong. Praise God, I eventually started to see the holes in that way of thinking; a verse that helped me was Galatians 5:13, where Paul tells the legalistic Galatians: "For you were called to freedom, brothers." The thing is, we are commanded to sing Psalms, but we are nowhere commanded not to use musical instruments, so we are given freedom whether or not to use them, and freedom as to what kinds of instruments to use.
"Only priests of God sang the songs in the old testament era, though David did.
Does the instruction of Paul by the Holy Spirit only permit elders, and apostles, prophets, evangelists, shepherds, and teachers to sing?
How can we be certain it does or doesn't exclude all other believers?"
My reply: The books of Ephesians and Colossians, where we find the clear command to sing Psalms, were definitely intended for the entire congregations, not just the leaders. Ephesians 1:1b says that the epistle is addressed "To the saints who are in Ephesus, and are faithful in Christ Jesus", and Colossians 1:2 similarly is addressed, "To the saints and faithful brothers in Christ at Colossae".
"If it allows for all other believers to sing "psalms" then this is a widening of the restriction imposed in the OT."
My reply: Actually, Jesus and the disciples sang the Psalms. Both Matthew 26:30 and Mark 14:26 say what happened at the very end of the Last Supper: "And when they had sung a hymn, they went out to the Mount of Olives." Virtually all Bible scholars, Psalm-singers or not, agree that this "hymn" consisted of Psalms 113-118, also known as the "Hallel". It was an integral part of the Passover at that time to sing it, so they weren't the first ones to do this; thus it was done regularly by ordinary (i.e. non-Levitical) Old Covenant Jews. Now, the fact that only the Levitical singers were specifically commanded to sing the Psalms under the Old Covenant (see 1 Chronicles 25) does not mean others weren't allowed or expected to do so as well; to assume that it would be forbidden for others to sing them just because it hadn't been expressly permitted, would be to assume the Regulative Principle (which I disagree with). As an analogy, the only person under the Old Testament law who was specifically commanded to read the Bible every day was the king of Israel; Deuteronomy 17:18-19 says, "And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the LORD his God...". Now, practically nobody today would argue that this means it would have been prohibited for non-monarchs to have their own copies of Bible passages (or even the whole Bible, if they could afford it) and read them for themselves. The fact is, God's word is for God's people; he wants them to know his word. Think of the Song of Moses in Deuteronomy 32: it was meant to be taught to all Israelites for generations to come: "Now therefore write this song and teach it to the people of Israel. Put it in their mouths, that this song may be a witness for me against the people of Israel." (Deuteronomy 31:19). Under the biblical definition of "psalm", the Song of Moses was also a psalm - an inspired song to be sung by his people.
"And if this is the case, then why is it not possible for the Holy Spirit to include in the meaning of spiritual songs (hidden to earlier generations) - specifically Biblical truth, to widen so as to allow for the truth of God's Word to be sung in a modern setting? "
My reply: The Psalms are the most oft-quoted book of the Old Testament in the New Testament; the apostolic church clearly knew them well. It seems they didn't see a need to 'modernize' God's worship songs. The Psalms are all about Christ after all; when Jesus appeared to the disciples after his resurrection, he said, "These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled." (Luke 24:44). And, as I said in the video, "spiritual" means "of the Spirit", and its juxtaposition with terms like "psalms", "hymns", "the word of Christ", etc. strongly denotes inspired songs. As believers, we have to be wary of eisegesis, or reading our own desired meaning into a biblical term so as to fit our own preconceived ideas, rather than exegesis, or simply allowing the text to speak for itself.
"Many psalms sang by (psalmody) believers today are not even following the Ancient original texts - because we do not have the original texts in our hands (as yet) "
My reply: If by this you mean that the texts may have been slightly corrupted, I don't think that's something we should worry about. God will preserve his word, and if in any way something has been omitted or changed, it's likely so minor as to not make any real difference. If we would follow this logic further, we would conclude that we may as well stop reading or trusting the Bible at all, since it may have some inconsequential "mistakes" in it.
(Reply Part 2/3)
"And the psalms I have sung from the 'book' don't follow the strict text of the KJV, but are tweaked to fit in the rhyme. Is this then permissble and on what authority is such a decision to be made."
My reply: God doesn't specifically command us to stick to one translation or another. However, the meaning of the text is clearly the most important thing. After all, in the original Hebrew, there were no rhymes; the main poetic things about the Psalms (and Proverbs, and some other wisdom literature) was Hebrew parallelism, meaning they would say something and then say it again (or say the opposite) in slightly different words. For example, Psalm 25:1 says, "To you, O LORD, I lift up my soul." and verse 2 says similarly, "O my God, in you I trust". Thus, the recipe for "poetry" in the Bible is not rhythm or rhyme, but symmetry and contrast between words or phrases - the meaning, not the form. Again, since we have no command in this regard anywhere in the Bible, I believe we have the freedom to make the Psalms rhyme if we want to; however, it is quite difficult to do so effectively, since you then have to make use of not only Hebrew parallelism and accurate translation, but also rhyming as well as meter . To have so many forms of poetry in one song seems over the top to me, but if it can be done well, it's quite nice.
"My whole point is that if we are to follow strictly the instructions given by Paul, then it is "IMPOSSIBLE" to follow it exactly as they did, because there is no record of their exact singing (or is there?).
And who is going to decide today, or even from yesteryear 4-500 AD onwards what is precisely "correct" psalmody?"
My reply: When we are given a simple command but not many details, then we should use spiritual discernment to determine for ourselves what is the best way of keeping the command. Believers may have different opinions over the best way to keep the commands; for example, most people who sing Psalms in church regularly, sing from very old rhyming, metrical Psalters. Some of them think that that is the only proper way to sing the Psalms in church, but I find no reason in Scripture to assume this. If you watch my video on Psalm Song Reviews 2018, you'll find that I personally listen to, sing, and memorize Psalms set to all kinds of modern musical styles. Certainly, not all musical styles would be appropriate for use in a church setting, but this, again, is a matter for spiritual discernment. As believers and even just as humans, we aren't meant to live under too many or too few laws. If you have too many laws, life gets complicated and difficult (think of Israel under the Pharisees), but if you have too few, you could put yourself or others in danger from lack of caution (think of Sodom and Gomorrah). We need a moderate amount of laws. Of course, with a moderate amount of laws there will often be uncertainty as to how best to follow a particular law in a particular context, because life is so varied and you will often end up in a situation not specifically given in Scripture. In such cases, we need wisdom: if you understand the intent of the law and of God's will in general, you will have a pretty good idea of how best to follow that law.
"This then brings me to the final point - isn't it permissble to sing to the Lord from the heart, the truth of God's word with the sense of it even if it is not exactly verbatim to the Text as we have it today? Doesn't God accept His children's offering of praise said or sung from a pure heart?"
My reply: It is indeed permissible, and if done with love I'm sure God appreciates it, but it is still not a fulfillment of the command in Ephesians and Colossians to sing Psalms. If God commands us to give him gold, we need to give him gold. We may certainly give him silver as well if we feel so inclined, but this will not fulfill his requirement for gold. But please don't think that God has rejected your offerings of praise via uninspired worship songs; he loves you and he certainly sees your heart's desires. My church (unfortunately) still sings virtually no Psalms, and yet I personally still sing the uninspired songs along with the congregation out of a desire for peace and harmony. I don't think it's wrong for me to do so, especially since I do listen to and sing Psalms on my own at home and in my car every day, thus keeping God's command and immensely enriching my spiritual life. You say, "Doesn't God accept His children's offering of praise said or sung from a pure heart?" Absolutely, but here's the thing: What is it that will make our heart pure to begin with? The Holy Spirit, of course, but more to the point: God's Word. Psalm 19:7-9 praises the power of God's Word to change a man's heart, saying "The law of the LORD is perfect, reviving the soul; the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple; the precepts of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart; the commandment of the LORD is pure, enlightening the eyes; the fear of the LORD is clean, enduring forever; the rules of the LORD are true, and righteous altogether." So we ought to take in the pure, unaltered Word of God as often as possible. What's better, to eat a fresh fruit, or to eat a processed snack made from fruits, preservatives, sugar, etc.? Both will give you energy, but the fresh fruit is more nourishing because it hasn't been altered or processed in any way. Singing a pure Psalm is like eating a fresh fruit: it's specially designed by God for you to consume it. On the other hand, singing an uninspired worship song (typically "based on a Psalm") is like eating a processed fruit snack; the packaging might say "30% Real Fruit!", because it does contain some real fruit, but it leaves you wondering, "Why not just save the trouble and eat a piece of fruit?". Uninspired song writers will say things like "Look, my latest worship song contains two whole verses from Psalm X", which is great, but why not just sing the actual Psalm? Of course, it's not a sin to process food, just as it's not a sin to write one's own worship songs with Bible verses mixed in, but both can leave a person thinking they're being nourished more than they really are, so we have to be aware of that. As for whether or not the text of the song must be verbatim from the Psalm, again, I don't think the song has to be verbatim from a particular translation, as long as it communicates the meaning of the original Psalm as faithfully as is reasonably possible.
"The Holy Spirit was poured out and that outpouring is for all generations as Peter details in Acts 2. The Holy Spirit is not wanting us to follow the letter of the 'law" but rather His directing in all things. "
My reply: Very well put. This is why we should follow his directing (in this case, the command in Ephesians and Colossians on singing Psalms) without getting bogged down in all the details that are not specified (i.e. "the letter of the law). That way, we won't end up accumulating and attempting to enforce new laws that are not in Scripture like the Pharisees did. Keep in mind that the Psalms are called "spiritual songs", meaning they are the Holy Spirit's songs. After laying out the way of salvation to the devout Jews on Pentecost, Peter says, "and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit." (Acts 2:38b). The Holy Spirit is a gift; in a way, he's all about gifts. 1 Corinthians 12-14 and other passages go on and on about the different gifts of the Holy Spirit for believers (regardless of which ones are still active today). Truly, the Psalms (spiritual songs) are also a tremendous gift of the Holy Spirit meant "for all generations". Just as salvation is both a gift and a command ("You must be born again"), the Psalms are both a gift from God and something we are commanded to make use of. Remember that just because we are not under the Old Covenant does not mean we do not have laws under the New Covenant. Other than the obvious, most important command to love God above all else and to love one's neighbor as oneself, believers are commanded to meet together regularly (Hebrews 10:24-25), perform the Lord's Supper and baptism, help provide for poorer believers (when possible), etc. When we keep the laws of the New Covenant, we are indeed following the Holy Spirit's directing.
@@thepsalm-singingmovement4762
I have had the privilege of meeting with brothers and sisters in Christ who only sing psalmody. They have been doing so for a very long time. And I sing with them.
But they are missing out of more.
...your last point is most vital -asking the Heavenly Father for the Holy Spirit. Jesus clearly told us this.
Also, We are not given instruction in the New Testament to ask the Holy Spirit for anything, though many do so.
Jesus plainly told us and He practiced this Himself, to pray to our Father in Heaven, as did the apostles post resurrection.
What will we be singing in the Heaven?
Revelation tells us that we sing the song of Moses and the Lamb; the words (or at least some of them) are given in the text.
The words of that song recorded in Revelation - are they in the book of Psalms?
There are a number of matters discussed in the New Testament that are not revealed in the psalms, eg
a] our victory in Jesus Christ, and living in the power of the Holy Spirit
b] the name of Jesus Christ and His love toward us;
c] the Promise of the Father - the pouring out of His Holy Spirit;
d] HIs coming again;
e] the Judgment to come
f] the defeat of death and the eradiction of all sin because of Jesus Christ;
g] the glories of Heaven of our dwelling in the Father's house.
While the psalms are the word of God, so too is the New Testament. The same Author required both to be written. They are ALL spiritual words.
The new testament is no less the word of God than the psalms. The New testament writings are spiritual words, and can be sung to music. In this mode of expression, these then are simply and plainly spiritual songs.
The Song of Moses in Revelation includes the words - "Worthy is the Lamb who was slain".
Those words are not written in the psalms. Yet they are sung in Heaven by the redeemed. This is no less a "spiritual song" than are the psalms.
Paul's writings are excellent messages for singing.
"Stand fast therfore in the liberty, wherewith Christ has made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage...." (etc - Galatians 5), is a well known Scripture in song of a number of decades ago. There are many such songs of praise to our God pennede from the NT writings, spiritual songs. There also many from the old testament too.
If the words come direct from Scripture - even verbatim, and are set to music, they are spiritual songs. To only sing psalms is to miss out of the blessing that comes from regularly singing new testament Scripture set to music.
I would caution anyone to not make fun of what I write below. Do not grieve the Holy Spirit and do not become guilty of blaspheming the Holy Spirit. If you do not understand say nothing; if you are earnestly seeking the truth from God ask Him to show you that truth which is in Jesus.
The phrase "singing in the spirit is in 1 Corinthians 14. 15.
Paul tells us that he will sing in the spirit and he will sing in the understanding also.
Earlier he says that the one who pspeaks in another tongue speaks not TO men but TO God. (14:2)
IN verse 14 he says - For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful.
In other words his human reasoning mind does not understand the meaning of what he prays in the spirit - (because he is speaking by the Holy Spirit in a language he is not familiar with)
v15 - What is it then? I will pray with the spirit and I wil pray with the mInd (nous - understanding) also.
His mind is unfruitful and cannot know the meaning of the words he utters, but his spirit speaks mysteries to God (v2)
Then he says I will sing with the spirit (in a language enabled by the Holy Spirit even though his mind does not know the meaning because his spirit is singing to God directly), and I will also sing with the mind." (v14)
Singing this way is singing in the spirit - which is what Paul speaks about in Ephesians 5:18-19 '...be filled with the (Holy) Spirit, speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritul songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord."
This is a command and takes us way beyond singing the psalms. When we sing the psalms we sing in our common language. Our mind is fruitful because we know the meaning of the words. But "singing in the spirit" as Paul describes is something else - our spirit is singing to God directly bypassing our minds -
BUT IT IS EDIFYING OUR SPIRIT 1 Cor 14:4 - and it glorifies Jesus Christ, and Jesus is made more precious to such an earnest soul.
...the one speaking (or singing) in a tongue (not taught by man but given - a grace gift from God, by the Holy Spirit) is speaking or singing to God and is edifying his own spirit in the Lord.
This too is "spiritul song" ; sung to the Lord.
@@thepsalm-singingmovement4762
I am sure I posted a reply to the above.
But one thing I will say for the moment; Jesus told us to ask the Father for things. He never told us to "ask the Holy Spirit" for anything, nor did He "ask the Holy Spirit" for anything, nor did the apostles.
There is wisdom in what Jesus said about the matter of prayer; it is a good diea to walk in that wisdom.
(Reply Part 1/2)
Thank you so much for your questions! It's a pleasure to be given an opportunity to reflect more deeply on these matters that are so close to my heart.
"We are not given instruction in the New Testament to ask the Holy Spirit for anything, though many do so.
Jesus plainly told us and He practiced this Himself, to pray to our Father in Heaven, as did the apostles post resurrection."
My reply: You have a point. The general pattern is to pray directly to the Father through Jesus in the Holy Spirit. Then again, Stephen addressed Jesus at his martyrdom. Also, since it is often the Holy Spirit who prompts us to do, say, or think this or that, I can't imagine it would be wrong to address the Spirit directly from time to time. But that's just my opinion; you may be right about that.
But think about it: Here you are reasoning that we ought to follow God's model for prayer to the letter - as exactly as possible. Since the pattern in the New Testament is to pray to God in the name of the Son through the Spirit, that is exactly how we must do it, according to what you're saying. Yet if you apply your reasoning from this comment to your first comment, you would have to conclude that we should not sing uninspired songs but only inspired songs, since that is the clear pattern given to us in Scripture.
"What will we be singing in the Heaven?
Revelation tells us that we sing the song of Moses and the Lamb; the words (or at least some of them) are given in the text.
The words of that song recorded in Revelation - are they in the book of Psalms?"
My reply: Actually, you're just proving my point here that the only songs we see that are sung in Heaven are inspired songs. The song of Moses and the Lamb are not in the book of Psalms but they definitely qualify as "spiritual songs", since they come from the Holy Spirit.
"There are a number of matters discussed in the New Testament that are not revealed in the psalms, eg
a] our victory in Jesus Christ, and living in the power of the Holy Spirit"
My reply: Jesus being victorious is found in many Psalms. In Psalm 2, God the Father says, "As for me, I have set my King on Zion, my holy hill." Then the King (Jesus) relates what the Father told him: "I will tell of the decree: The LORD said to me, "You are my Son; today I have begotten you. Ask of me, and I will make the nations your heritage, and the ends of the earth your possession. You shall break them with a rod of iron and dash them in pieces like a potter's vessel.""
Psalm 110 is similar, except that it includes the saints (thus "our" victory): "The LORD [the Father] says to my Lord [Jesus the Son]: "Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool." The LORD sends forth from Zion your mighty scepter. Rule in the midst of your enemies! Your people [that's us] will offer themselves freely on the day of your power, in holy garments; from the womb of the morning, the dew of your youth will be yours." The rest of this Psalm is mainly about Jesus' victory over his enemies.
As for "living in the power of the Holy Spirit", have a look at Psalm 143:10: "Teach me to do your will, for you are my God! Let your good Spirit lead me on level ground!" That pretty much sums it up. Furthermore, every one of the Psalm writers was filled with the Holy Spirit at the very least when they wrote the Psalms; David was filled with the Spirit from his youth onwards. When they write/sing about practicing righteousness, it's always with the understanding that the Holy Spirit is empowering them to be righteous, whether the Spirit is physically inside them or just near to them (think of John 14:17, where, prior to the disciples' indwelling of the Holy Spirit, Jesus says of the Spirit, "You know him, for he dwells with you and will be in you").
b] the name of Jesus Christ and His love toward us;
My reply: Interestingly, most of the time in the four Gospels, when anyone directly addresses Jesus, they refer to him as "Lord", not "Jesus". And what term is used more often than ever to refer to God in the Psalms? "Lord". Obviously, many Christians have a sentimental attachment to Jesus' name (for good reason, of course), but that doesn't make it obligatory to use his given name when singing praises.
To compare, the New Testament never uses the actual name of God "Yahweh" (or "Jehovah"), but rather replaces his holy name with the title "Lord" just as the Greek Septuagint did. Were the New Testament authors doing evil by omitting God's holy name from their writings? Apparently not. Judging from the New Testament, God doesn't mind if we never address him with the name Yahweh/Jehovah. Thus, to "omit" Jesus' name from our worship songs is also no problem.
c] the Promise of the Father - the pouring out of His Holy Spirit;
My reply: True, as far as I know, it doesn't explicitly refer to this event in the Psalms, but it seems to be implied. Let me show you: Ephesians 4:3-4 says that believers ought to be "eager to maintain the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace. There is one body and one Spirit-just as you were called to the one hope that belongs to your call". So we see that the Holy Spirit is the one who gives us unity in the church.
Now see Psalm 133: "Behold, how good and pleasant it is when brothers dwell in unity! It is like the precious oil on the head, running down on the beard, on the beard of Aaron, running down on the collar of his robes! It is like the dew of Hermon, which falls on the mountains of Zion! For there the Lord has commanded the blessing, life forevermore." Being anointed with precious oil is often a symbol of being anointed with the Holy Spirit in the Bible, and to receive the Holy Spirit under the New Covenant is to receive "life forevermore". And it's hard to think of any other way to connect the concept of "unity" with the concept of "anointing", as the Psalmist does in this Psalm.
Deuteronomy 31:19
Nice, another song composed by God!
Wow God bless u deeply for this. They have given me real clarity
Thank you very much; to God be the glory!