Thank you for watching this video! If you have any questions, clarifications, or corrections, please feel free to leave them in the comments below! 💬⬇ Link to the Learn to Read Coptic Playlist: th-cam.com/play/PLt5K3EPCIKc2y8I-3nAK8Q9uMsABKqi7w.html&si=usGodE8QiTH19aGD
this language should be made into an everyday modern language (not just a liturgical language) and the alphabet should be simplified for it to be taught to schools children in Egypt (hopefully). We need to learn our ancestors' language.
There have been efforts made to modernize the language and bring it back. Probably about 20 years ago. A lot of chat forums where Coptic was the language used. Pretty cool to get an email from someone in Coptic!
@@kavikv.d.hexenholtz3474 that's very cool! Then we can bring back Latin in Europe, and Koine everywhere else :P Just half-kidding but I'm glad there's an ongoing effort for Coptic :)
@@keegster7167 Yeah - there was, at least 10 years ago - I don't know if it's still ongoing or not. Unfortunately, the discussion forums weren't very active after a few years, and were discontinued.
The first 25 letters of Coptic are exactly like Greek. Their pronunciation is usually similar to ancient Greek or modern Greek. The remaining letters are additional letters that don't exist in Greek. So if you learn Coptic, you can also read Greek. If you know Greek, you need to learn only a few letters to read Coptic. And Coptic has a huge amount of Greek vocabulary. Pnevma, theos, aggelos, martyr, parthenos are all words used in Greek even today.
Hey, I've been learning lots from you. Your video about the Copts really enlightened me and kind of took me down the rabbit hole of Orthodox Christianity. Thanks, I'm a huge fan.
Champollion used Coptic to decipher the Hieroglyphs, because the ancient Egyptians spoke old Coptic. Thus Coptic is the language of that magnificent civilisation of ancient Egypte.
I hope you enjoyed this video, and the other videos as well. Both Greco and Old Bohairic are good options, however, the Church primarily uses Greco-Bohairic which means it has more resources to learn!
@@AsItWas00 Between the Old Bohairic and Greco-Bohairic pronunciations, which one would have been used in Egypt prior to Arabic becoming the primary language?
Neither. What we call Greco-Bohairic is based on the standardization efforts of the 19th century, and Old-Bohairic is based on the early-modern pronunciation before the reform. What would have been spoken in Egypt before the Arab conquest, is what we would now refer to as the Classical dialects of Bohairic and Sahidic.
@AsItWas00 I must ask though Would Greco-Bohairic simply be pronuncing Coptic the way you'd pronounce Modern Greek? There are some aspects I'm unsure about Like, I assumed that Greco-Bohairic would pronounce ⲟⲓ, ⲁⲓ, and ⲉⲓ as ee, eh, and ee, respectively Since that is how Greeks pronounce οι, αι, and ει But, I have been told by some people that this isn't the case, and that the pronunciations would be oy, aye, and ey 😅
Hello! Here comes another round of myyy questions, be prepared! (Because I'm splitting this comment in 3 parts lol) 1:20 Many fonts like "Athanasius" have what seems a "Medieval Uppercase ⲋ", also appears in unicode: "Ⲋ". Why is this? I know that most probably you'll be teaching us how to work with numbers and all of that from the comment you posted in the 2nd part. But just for now, is it correct to put "Ⲋ︦" or it's much more accurate to just use "ⲋ︦"? Does this affects all the other letters in it's number variation? 1:34 Looking at the right side of the video there's an image of an early Coptic manuscript. I can see from that image some stuff that look weird or not mentioned in other videos. For example, why some "Ⲓ" have a diaresis? (It appears in the Greek Uncial example too so...) Are those lines above some letters " ⳯ " the abbreviation's line or an early type of Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ " ̀"? If there were none or barely any punctuation marks why in some parts of that image I can find two dots ":" in some words? Are this lines that look like "bones" " ⳰ " or something else? What do they mean? What are those 2 long lines at the left side of the document close to a "Ϣ" and "Ⲅ" respectively? 5:09 I think I have some issues with your explanation in "Ⲓⲓ" as /j/. /j/ is a semi-consonant approximant. That is something that appears before vowels. Specifically speaking it's the non-syllabic version of /i/ at the beginning of a word meanwhile if it appears after a vowel it is /i̯/. Something similar happens with the word "High" /haɪ̯/, the stress is put in the /a/ so if you want to make it a "dipthong" with an /ɪ/ the /ɪ/ must have the " ̯ " symbol (I know it's convinient in the case of /w/ to use it in both beginning and ending, but just letting know that /u̯/ also exist). Knowing this and that the second explanation for "Ⲓⲓ" is correct as the "Ⲓ" in "Ⲓⲱⲧ" is followed by a vowel it should be transcribed as /j/. But in "Ⲓⲥϫⲉⲛ" this shouldn't happen as the word should pronounced as /isd͡ʒe̞n/ and not /jsd͡ʒe̞n/ (As there is not vowel following that sound). The only explanation I could find is that when you show us the pronounciation of the word it adds a hidden "ⲉ" in between the "Ⲓ" and "ⲥ" like /je̞sd͡ʒe̞n/. The question is, was it a mistake to not put the /e̞/? And if that's the case, does that mean that if an "Ⲓⲓ" is at the start of a word that necessarily means that it will have a vowel following it and if there's none the consonant will inherently have an invisible Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ so it forms the /j/? Are there any other words with that same situation that doesn't have an invisible /e̞/ added? Because for example in the 2nd video "Ⲓϧ" was pronounced as /je̞x/ which makes sense with the mentioned rule, but then when I asked you responded that it was incorrect and it should have been /iːx/ instead, like if there was an "Ⲏ" at the beginning. Was that an erroneous answer or there's exceptions? 6:23 I'm having trouble learning how to pronounce /sˁ/. Even after seeing some videos that mentions how to pronounce it in Arabic "ص" it is still very hard for me as I'm not a native speaker or learner of it. Is it that important to pronounce it like /sˁ/ as in the given example or it's just like an allophone with /s/? I mean it because in other videos where the combinations "ⲥⲁ", "ⲥⲟ" and "ⲥⲱ" occur I can't hear any difference, such as this ones from the other 4 videos: "Ⲥⲁⲃⲉ" (at 7:26), "Ⲥⲁⲇⲟⲕ" (7:57), "Ⲥⲁⲙⲓⲧ" (8:02), "Ⲃⲁⲥⲁⲛⲟⲥ" (8:13) and "Ⲥⲁⲃⲃⲁⲧⲟⲛ" (8:42) in the first video. "Ⲥⲱⲛⲓ" (3:56), "Ⲥⲱⲧⲏⲣ" (4:01), "Ⲥⲱⲧⲉⲙ" (4:36), "Ⲙⲉⲛⲉⲛⲥⲱⲥ" (5:47) and "Ⲇⲓⲟⲛⲩⲥⲟⲥ" (10:54) in the second video. "Ⲛ̀ⲥⲁ" (3:25) and "Ⲉⲣⲟⲩⲥⲁⲣⲝ" (10:48) in the third video. "Ⲉⲙⲥⲁϩ" (4:27), "Ⲙⲁⲛⲥⲁϩϯ" (6:20), "Ⲣⲉϥⲥⲁϫⲓ" (6:29) and "Ⲁⲣⲏⲥⲁⲛϩⲟⲩⲣⲉ" (7:57) in the fouth video respectively. (If there's one that is missing or not correctly written just tell me)
6:32 Is "Ⲥⲥ" only pronounce as /z/ when followed by "Ⲙⲙ" in words originated from Greek? I mean this because in Greek this can happen with Ββ, Γγ, or Μμ. So in words with "ⲥⲃ" and "ⲥⲅ" the "ⲥ" would be pronounced as /s/ right? 6:49 Following 6:23 I have the same question with /tˁ/ (Pronounced as "ط" from Arabic), is it that important or it's just an allophone? I can't hear the difference and here's the ones I've found for the other 4 videos: "Ⲧⲁⲓ" (6:45), "Ⲕⲁⲧⲁ" (7:12), "Ⲧⲁⲓⲟ" (7:37), "Ⲧⲁⲕⲟ" (7:41), "Ⲧⲁⲟⲥ" (7:44), "Ⲧⲟⲧⲥ" (7:54), "Ⲕⲁⲧⲁⲃⲁⲥⲓⲥ" (8:37) and "Ⲥⲁⲃⲃⲁⲧⲟⲛ" (8:42) in the first video. "Ⲏⲧⲟⲥ" (3:23), "Ⲭⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ" (5:32), "Ⲭⲣⲏⲥⲧⲟⲥ" (5:37), "Ϥⲧⲟⲩ" (8:52), "Ⲧⲁⲙⲁⲩ" (9:28) and "Ⲁϥⲧⲟⲛϥ" (10.26) in the second video. "Ⲧⲁⲥⲑⲟ" (4:45), "Ϥ̀ⲧⲱⲟⲩ" (4:59), "Ⲑⲉⲟⲧⲟⲕⲟⲥ" (6:13), "Ⲧⲁⲝⲓⲥ" (9:03), and "Ϯⲉ̀ⲡⲓⲥⲧⲟⲗⲏ" (11:40) in the third video. "Ⲟⲩⲧⲁϩ" (4:23), "Ⲧⲁⲗϭⲟ" (4:50) and "Ⲥⲧⲁϫⲟⲩⲗ" (6:34) in the fourth video respectively. (If there's one that is missing or not correctly written just tell me) 6:58 Following with the 6:23 question we have the same situation were now "ⲛⲧ" is pronounced as /d/ like in Greek, but only in Loanwords. So from that statement the word "Ϥⲛⲧ" from the second video at (8:02) should be pronounced as /fd/. But in the video it is pronounced as /fint/. So what happened in here? My hypothesis is that "ϥⲛ" is weird to pronounce so you added a hidden "ⲓ" but then you pronounce /nt/ because it is from Coptic origin and not Greek origin right? But what happens with "Ⲛ̀ⲧⲉ" in the third video at (3:15)? Because it is pronounced as /e̞nte̞/ as it should by the rules mentioned on that video. But the thing is, would this happen if the loanword has a "Ⲛⲛ" with Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ like shown in "Ⲛ̀ⲧ" or "ⲛ̀ⲧ" or they would be pronounced as /e̞d/ respectively? 6:58 Following the last comment but continuing with the same comment. Does "ⲙⲡ", "ⲧⲍ", "τσ", "ⲅⲭ" or "ⲅⲝ" form /p/, /d͡z/, /t͡s/ and /ŋ/ respectively when they are loanwords as how this digraphs would work in Greek or they'll be spoken as they're written? 7:39 This case is interesting... When the Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ is over a vowel this one is pronounced separately from the other syllable but for "Ⲩ̀ⲓⲟⲥ" this doesn't happen and instead it is pronounced as /e̞ijo̞s/ huh? Does this mean that "Ⲩⲩ" isn't considered a vowel even when it clearly makes that sound? Because if they wanted to make /e̞jo̞s/ they could have easily spell it like "Ⲉⲓⲟⲥ" or "Ⲉ̀ⲓⲟⲥ". Pretty sure this has something to do with the none existence of a Spelling reform right? 9:11 Related to the last one. You've only mention the "ⲛⲧ" this with "Ⲧⲧ" but would this same situation happen with "ϯ" too? For example something like "ⲛϯ" or "ⲛ̀ϯ", would those be pronounced as /di/ and /e̞di/ or like /nti/ and /e̞nti/ respectively? (The example given in 9:21 could be from Coptic origin so the Greek origin's version is still missing from explanation). 10:28 Following with 6:23 and 6:49 with /tˁ/ I'm leaving here the examples from the other videos (Not mentioning names): "Ⲑⲁⲓ" (3:01), "Ⲛ̀ⲑⲟ" (3:20), "Ⲉⲑⲟⲩⲁⲃ" (4:40), "Ⲧⲁⲥⲑⲟ" (4:45), "Ⲑⲁⲙⲓⲟ" (5:15) and "Ⲅⲁⲃⲃⲁⲑⲁ" (5:37) in the third video. (In the fourth video all the words with this situation seem to be correctly pronounced) 13:12 Why the mentioned consonants ("Ⲃⲃ", "Ⲇⲇ", "Ⲍⲍ", "Ⲗⲗ", "Ⲝⲝ", "Ⲣⲣ", "Ⲯⲯ" and "Ϯϯ") can't have a Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ if there are some words where this consonants have an "Ⲉⲉ" preceding them? Wouldn't this rule only work for consonants that can't have an "Ⲉⲉ" before them?
15:33 Why "⳪" needs a line above if it's clearly a differentiated letter from all the others? Also, the line seems to be Only above the "ⲥ", why? 15:46 For some reason in certain fonts like the already mentioned "Athanasius" the ligature ⳧ appears to have a "ⲅⲥ" instead of "ⲥⲥ". Why does this happens? Is it just an error or it actually means something? I mean it because as mentioned in another comment the original word is "Ⲥⲧⲁⲩⲣⲟⲥ" and it doesn't have any "Ⲅⲅ". Even if it reflected something like "ςⲥ" it wouldn't make sense as the letter "ς" is used only at the end of a word so it should be "ⲥς" instead... (I got the fonts from the Coptic Heritage website, but I'm sure there are more with this feature in other places). 16:18 This is a recommendation. In the last 4 videos we've been working with single words and clearly some of them were pronounced slowly and pronouncing sometimes way too much certain consonants or vowels to make it clear. But even though I stop or slow down the video I think your pronounciation for the given First sentences in this video were too fast paced. So I think that you should for example the next time you do this say something like: "I'm gonna repeat slowly and then I'll follow with my natural speed". Even more when the given words are New and you haven't showed it to us. 16:15 If an abbreviation that it's first letter is lowercase that means that they don't need to be uppercase when they are in at the beginning of a sentence? For example "ⲁ︦ⲗ︦" in the given example. 16:37 Why some words have a capital letter in the middle of the word? For example: "ⲠⲓⲬ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ", "ⲡ̀Ϣⲏⲣⲓ" and "ⲙ̀Ⲫϯ"? Shouldn't them be written like "Ⲡⲓⲭ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ"/"Ⲡⲓ-Ⲭ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ", "Ⲡ̀ϣⲏⲣ"-"Ⲡ̀-Ϣⲏⲣⲓ" and "Ⲙ̀ⲫϯ"-"Ⲙ̀-Ⲫϯ" respectively? 0:11 Lastly I have two questions not related to the video itself. I'd like to ask if in the video you're gonna make about numbers you're gonna add the so called "Coptic Epact" numbers (Where "Ⲋ︦ⲋ︦" probably comes from). I mean it because there's literally 0 videos in YT that explain those (That I could find). And in case those aren't added (Sad moment) would there be a place for the (900) "Ⳁ︦ⳁ︦" Sampi? 1:03 - 18:25 What's the melody that sounds at the beginning and ending of a lesson? I couldn't find it.
1:20 Numbers are always placed in lowercase with a line on top. Some fonts will include an uppercase version of ⲋ, however that is unnecessary since such a character would rarely ever be used. I believe those that include it do so mostly for balance and aesthetics, but a capital ⲋ serves no function to the extent of my knowledge. 1:34 The Coptic manuscript displayed is the 'Pauline Epistles & Gospel of John,' preserved in the Chester Beatty Library. It is a Sahidic text from c. 600 AD. I used this manuscript because it was intact and the script was clear. The majority of the more ancient papyri I found were tattered and faded, and so wouldn’t be clear enough to demonstrate the variation in form/font. While the script in it is uncial, and there are no spaces between words, some diacritical markers and punctuation signs had begun to develop by that time. I am not one hundred percent sure what all the different markings are, but from observation, I can point out the following. The diaeresis was employed in Sahidic, similar to Greek, but was not common in Bohairic. The lines on top of words serve as both abbreviations and a variant of jinkim, depending on the case. For example the first line reads ⲡⲁⲩⲗⲟⲥ ⲡϩ̅ⲙϩⲁⲗ ⲛ̅ⲓⲥ̅̅ ⲡⲉⲭ̅ⲥ̅. I believe that the lines over the ϩ̅ and ⲛ̅ are variants of Jinkim, while ⲓ̅ⲥ̅ ⲡⲉⲭ̅ⲥ̅ is a Sahidic variant of the abbreviations Ⲓⲏ̅ⲥ̅ Ⲡⲓx̅c̅, which are shorthand for Jesus Christ. As for the “.” “:” and “:-” these are all old Sahidic punctuation marks. Finally I am not sure what the swooshes by the "Ϣ" and "Ⲅ" are. 5:09 Sorry for any undue confusion, but I myself am not an IPA expert, and all the Coptic Texts books I’ve ever come across, never use IPA to explain pronunciation. They stick to using comparisons to English and Arabic phonemes for reference. I tried to do the IPA pronunciations based on what limited understanding I have with regards to that field. So, I apologize if my transcription were not accurate. However, the Ⲓ at the start of the word is almost always described as having a y like sound. Serving as a semi-vowel. If you want to add an imaginary ⲉ sense of it you can, but that's just how I’ve been taught to pronounce I at the start of a word. I can’t explain why or how, all I can say is it is what it is. Most likely for my explanation in the second video I got confused by what the IPA symbols were actually representing, but it is the common rule that I is pronounced like a y when it starts a word, or when it is followed by a vowel. 6:23 The /sˁ/ in Coptic is not as well pronounced or apparent as it is in Arabic. Proper pronunciation prescribed it per the rule if followed by the aforementioned vowels, but it is not an issue if it is not apparently emphasized. Most people end up pronouncing it similarly to the S in sole/soul or in son/sun.
@@m4rloncha 6:32 From what I’ve read it only does so when followed by a Ⲙ. 6:49 As a native speaker of Arabic, I can tell you that the majority of online demos I heard online for /sˁ/ and /tˁ/ are over emphasized. We never pronounce them that prominently, they make a show of pronouncing them in an attempt to teach. The /tˁ/ is kind of similar to the t in tall and talk. Much softer than demo videos make it out to be. 6:58 The Ⲧ is pronounced like a /d/ if followed by Ⲛ in words of Greek origin. "Ϥⲛⲧ" “ⲛ̀ⲧⲉ” are both native Coptic words, and so, the rule doesn’t apply there. Also in this convention the /n/ is not eliminated, the /t/ is simply converted to a /d/. You can see this clearly in the sample word used “ⲟⲛⲧⲱⲥ” a Greek loan word pronounced as /o̞ndo̞ːs/. Both the /t/ to /d/ and /s/ to /z/ transformations are rare phenomena observed only in words of Greek origin. Concerning "ⲙⲡ", "ⲧⲍ", "τσ", these are all pronounced as written, and no diagraphs are observed for them in Coptic. As for "ⲅⲭ" or "ⲅⲝ" the ⲅ shifts to /n/ not a full /ŋ/ since that phoneme does not exist in Coptic, so they are pronounced like “ⲛⲭ” and “ⲛⲝ.” This is stated later in the video when we covered Ⲅ in detail. 9:57 7:39 I believe this has to do with the fact that Ⲩ is a semi-vowel, and not a vowel in its own right. So when it has a jinkim added it gets treated like a consonant, rather than a vowel, hence the addition of an e. This is also a Greek loanword so that further complicates things. 9:11 Ϯ is a demotic letter so it only exists in words of Coptic origin. Both ⲧ and ϯ used to be pronounced as /d/ and /di/ in some Coptic words in the Late/Old Bohairic pronunciation, however, following the 19th century reform this stopped. Ϯ is never pronounced as a /di/ but always as a /ti/, and ⲧ is never pronounced as a /d/ in words of Coptic origin, only in Greek loan words when followed by ⲛ. 10:28 I’ve addressed this issue earlier, but I will take a chance to explain a little more here. The inclusion for these rules for pronouncing /sˁ/ and /tˁ/ in Greco-Bohairic is sort of an attempt at reconciling Greco and Late/Old Bohairic. These pronunciations are only mentioned in more scholarly textbooks of Bohairic with the aim being to preserve as much as possible of the language's original pronunciation. However, most Coptic lessons for beginners will not teach those pronunciations and will simply stick to the simple convention of one phoneme per graph with ⲥ, ⲧ, and ⲑ, always being pronounced as simple /s/, /t/, and /θ/. I was unsure which convention to follow originally, however, as the series went on I decided to become more and more precise with the rules of pronunciation prescribed in text-books rather than the common conventions used in beginners lessons offered in Churches. I hope this explains the inconsistency that may be apparent with regards to those pronunciations. In the end, while the most accurate way for pronunciation is to follow the rules prescribed in the textbooks, many choose not to and simply follow the simplified pronunciations. 13:12 This is an observational rule. I am not sure why these letters never have a jinkim on them, but textbooks say that they never do.
@@m4rloncha 15:33 The convention is to still place a line on top of it. I am not sure why exactly. The line length is a technical issue. The unicode keyboard I use has a standard line length that should be long enough to cover any single character. Since the two letters are attached, it registered them as one character, and so it only allowed me to add one line on top of ⲥ. 15:46 I have seen that variant abbreviation, but I am not sure why it looks so. Keep in mind that the Coptic Ⲥ is the Greek Σ, yet it looks more like ς than σ. Maybe ς wasn’t always reserved for the end of a word? Not exactly sure what the answer to this one is. 16:18 I am so Sorry! 16:16 For abbreviations, only nouns are ever capitalized, other than that, they are kept lowercase, even at the start of a sentence. To get around this especially with words like alleluia and kyrie eleison that are repeated many times back to back, the first instance is spelled out so that it is capitalized and the rest are abbreviated. For example, Ⲁⲗⲗⲏⲗⲟⲩⲓⲁ: ⲁ̅ⲗ̅: ⲁ̅ⲗ̅. 16:37 Coptic capitalization is not well standardized. You tend to capitalize words at the start of a sentence, nouns, and words of theological importance. However the jury is still out with regards to attached particles to nouns. ⲡⲓ and ⲡ̀ are both particles that mean “the.” Some people say you should capitalize the particle at the start of a word, but not the word itself, as in Ⲡⲓⲭ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ and Ⲡ̀ϣⲏⲣⲓ. Others say you should do the opposite, leaving the particle as lowercase and capitalizing the word as in ⲡⲓⲬ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ and ⲡ̀Ϣⲏⲣⲓ. Others say to compromise and capitalize both ⲠⲓⲬ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ and Ⲡ̀Ϣⲏⲣⲓ. I am personally inconsistent when it comes to picking which to do. Coptic never separates particles from words with dashes. This may be done for demonstrative purposes in lessons and textbooks, but particles are always fully attached. I am not sure whether I will make a numbers video soon. This series has taken longer than expected to produce and I feel that it's time to cover something else before talking about numbers. But I will try to do some research into the Epact numbers in case I do make a numbers video. Lastly, the name of the channel Ⲱⲥⲡⲉⲣ ⲏⲛ/As it was is the title of a Greek hymn of the Coptic liturgy. The melody at the start and end of the video is the harmony of the start of this hymn. It is personally one of my favorite hymns of the Coptic Liturgy. I will attach a few versions of it for you below. English Version, Choir : th-cam.com/video/sk7ZF1ip7Xg/w-d-xo.html Greek Version, Choir and Music : www.davidensemble.com/multimedia/complete_albums/hymns_basilius_mass_2/Choir_and_music/Track_10.mp3 Instrumental Version, (Intro and Outro audio): media.tasbeha.org/mp3/Songs/Instrumental/Fr.Antonious_Zikry/Liturgy_Hymns/22.As_it_was.mp3 I hope you enjoy this hymn as much as I do!
Wanna know something funny, both Ϥ and the Cyrillic letter Che (Ч), which look nearly identical to eachother, both have a numerical value of ninety, historically, the Cyrillic numeral for 90 was coppa (Ҁ), descended from the greek letter koppa (Ϙ) (which the letter Q descended from) also meant 90, so Ϥ, Ч, & Q (all be it indirectly in Qs case) have something in common in a way
Both are a "Staurogram" or a "Monogrammatic cross", that is, the Greek's ligature for "Τ" and "Ρ", "Tau" and "Rho". As mentioned in 15:46 the original word is "Ⲥⲧⲁⲩⲣⲟⲥ" in Coptic, "Σταυρός"/"σταυρός" in Greek that means "Cross". Both means the same thing but are represented differently: In ⳨ they just add the "Τ" and "Ρ" (Which appears in both versions too). This is originally used as a Greek ligature. But ⳧ also adds the two simas "Ⲥⲥ" from the beginning and end of the word. This one is purely Coptic as the Greek language doesn't have that letter represented like that but as "Σσς". If you ever see a "⳧" with what seems a "ϭⲥ" ligature is probably just the Greek representation (σς) instead of Shima (Ϭ) + Sima (Ⲥ). Is very rare though, but you have to take that in mind. So if you don't mind a little bit of Greek in your Coptic texts just use ⳨, but if you want to be more pure in your Coptic texts use ⳧ (Though both are correct and mean the same thing).
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Thank you for watching this video! If you have any questions, clarifications, or corrections, please feel free to leave them in the comments below! 💬⬇
Link to the Learn to Read Coptic Playlist: th-cam.com/play/PLt5K3EPCIKc2y8I-3nAK8Q9uMsABKqi7w.html&si=usGodE8QiTH19aGD
this language should be made into an everyday modern language (not just a liturgical language) and the alphabet should be simplified for it to be taught to schools children in Egypt (hopefully). We need to learn our ancestors' language.
There have been efforts made to modernize the language and bring it back. Probably about 20 years ago. A lot of chat forums where Coptic was the language used. Pretty cool to get an email from someone in Coptic!
@@kavikv.d.hexenholtz3474 that's very cool! Then we can bring back Latin in Europe, and Koine everywhere else :P Just half-kidding but I'm glad there's an ongoing effort for Coptic :)
@@keegster7167
Yeah - there was, at least 10 years ago - I don't know if it's still ongoing or not. Unfortunately, the discussion forums weren't very active after a few years, and were discontinued.
The first 25 letters of Coptic are exactly like Greek. Their pronunciation is usually similar to ancient Greek or modern Greek. The remaining letters are additional letters that don't exist in Greek.
So if you learn Coptic, you can also read Greek. If you know Greek, you need to learn only a few letters to read Coptic.
And Coptic has a huge amount of Greek vocabulary. Pnevma, theos, aggelos, martyr, parthenos are all words used in Greek even today.
Im a polish person and I know the Coptic alphabet by heart, i even have a coptic keyboard, great video btw!
Thank you!
Hey, I've been learning lots from you. Your video about the Copts really enlightened me and kind of took me down the rabbit hole of Orthodox Christianity. Thanks, I'm a huge fan.
Thank you. I am glad you are enjoying the content. May God bless your steps and continue to guide you!
Other than you referring to syllables as "diphthongs", it was a nice video!
Champollion used Coptic to decipher the Hieroglyphs, because the ancient Egyptians spoke old Coptic. Thus Coptic is the language of that magnificent civilisation of ancient Egypte.
AAWWWW HELL YEAH ANOTHER LANGUAGE TH-camR
Keep going
The sound of Ϯ, [ti] isn't a dipthong, a dipthong is a compound of 2 vowel sounds like the ay sound in pAY, its more technically a Syllable.
You are correct. I should have said that ϯ is a biphonemic letter, but the expression failed me.
Interesting video. Very clear and without so much complexity. Can we wait more ?
I am glad you enjoyed the video. God willing there will be more to come.
Wonderful! I was just looking for a good guide. Not sure whether to use Greco-Bohairic or Bohairic though 😅
I hope you enjoyed this video, and the other videos as well. Both Greco and Old Bohairic are good options, however, the Church primarily uses Greco-Bohairic which means it has more resources to learn!
@@AsItWas00 Great! Thank you!
@@AsItWas00 Between the Old Bohairic and Greco-Bohairic pronunciations, which one would have been used in Egypt prior to Arabic becoming the primary language?
Neither. What we call Greco-Bohairic is based on the standardization efforts of the 19th century, and Old-Bohairic is based on the early-modern pronunciation before the reform. What would have been spoken in Egypt before the Arab conquest, is what we would now refer to as the Classical dialects of Bohairic and Sahidic.
@AsItWas00 I must ask though
Would Greco-Bohairic simply be pronuncing Coptic the way you'd pronounce Modern Greek?
There are some aspects I'm unsure about
Like, I assumed that Greco-Bohairic would pronounce ⲟⲓ, ⲁⲓ, and ⲉⲓ as ee, eh, and ee, respectively
Since that is how Greeks pronounce οι, αι, and ει
But, I have been told by some people that this isn't the case, and that the pronunciations would be oy, aye, and ey 😅
Hello! Here comes another round of myyy questions, be prepared!
(Because I'm splitting this comment in 3 parts lol)
1:20 Many fonts like "Athanasius" have what seems a "Medieval Uppercase ⲋ", also appears in unicode: "Ⲋ". Why is this? I know that most probably you'll be teaching us how to work with numbers and all of that from the comment you posted in the 2nd part. But just for now, is it correct to put "Ⲋ︦" or it's much more accurate to just use "ⲋ︦"? Does this affects all the other letters in it's number variation?
1:34 Looking at the right side of the video there's an image of an early Coptic manuscript. I can see from that image some stuff that look weird or not mentioned in other videos.
For example, why some "Ⲓ" have a diaresis? (It appears in the Greek Uncial example too so...)
Are those lines above some letters " ⳯ " the abbreviation's line or an early type of Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ " ̀"?
If there were none or barely any punctuation marks why in some parts of that image I can find two dots ":" in some words?
Are this lines that look like "bones" " ⳰ " or something else? What do they mean?
What are those 2 long lines at the left side of the document close to a "Ϣ" and "Ⲅ" respectively?
5:09 I think I have some issues with your explanation in "Ⲓⲓ" as /j/.
/j/ is a semi-consonant approximant. That is something that appears before vowels. Specifically speaking it's the non-syllabic version of /i/ at the beginning of a word meanwhile if it appears after a vowel it is /i̯/. Something similar happens with the word "High" /haɪ̯/, the stress is put in the /a/ so if you want to make it a "dipthong" with an /ɪ/ the /ɪ/ must have the " ̯ " symbol (I know it's convinient in the case of /w/ to use it in both beginning and ending, but just letting know that /u̯/ also exist).
Knowing this and that the second explanation for "Ⲓⲓ" is correct as the "Ⲓ" in "Ⲓⲱⲧ" is followed by a vowel it should be transcribed as /j/.
But in "Ⲓⲥϫⲉⲛ" this shouldn't happen as the word should pronounced as /isd͡ʒe̞n/ and not /jsd͡ʒe̞n/ (As there is not vowel following that sound).
The only explanation I could find is that when you show us the pronounciation of the word it adds a hidden "ⲉ" in between the "Ⲓ" and "ⲥ" like /je̞sd͡ʒe̞n/.
The question is, was it a mistake to not put the /e̞/? And if that's the case, does that mean that if an "Ⲓⲓ" is at the start of a word that necessarily means that it will have a vowel following it and if there's none the consonant will inherently have an invisible Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ so it forms the /j/?
Are there any other words with that same situation that doesn't have an invisible /e̞/ added?
Because for example in the 2nd video "Ⲓϧ" was pronounced as /je̞x/ which makes sense with the mentioned rule, but then when I asked you responded that it was incorrect and it should have been /iːx/ instead, like if there was an "Ⲏ" at the beginning. Was that an erroneous answer or there's exceptions?
6:23 I'm having trouble learning how to pronounce /sˁ/. Even after seeing some videos that mentions how to pronounce it in Arabic "ص" it is still very hard for me as I'm not a native speaker or learner of it. Is it that important to pronounce it like /sˁ/ as in the given example or it's just like an allophone with /s/?
I mean it because in other videos where the combinations "ⲥⲁ", "ⲥⲟ" and "ⲥⲱ" occur I can't hear any difference, such as this ones from the other 4 videos:
"Ⲥⲁⲃⲉ" (at 7:26), "Ⲥⲁⲇⲟⲕ" (7:57), "Ⲥⲁⲙⲓⲧ" (8:02), "Ⲃⲁⲥⲁⲛⲟⲥ" (8:13) and "Ⲥⲁⲃⲃⲁⲧⲟⲛ" (8:42) in the first video.
"Ⲥⲱⲛⲓ" (3:56), "Ⲥⲱⲧⲏⲣ" (4:01), "Ⲥⲱⲧⲉⲙ" (4:36), "Ⲙⲉⲛⲉⲛⲥⲱⲥ" (5:47) and "Ⲇⲓⲟⲛⲩⲥⲟⲥ" (10:54) in the second video.
"Ⲛ̀ⲥⲁ" (3:25) and "Ⲉⲣⲟⲩⲥⲁⲣⲝ" (10:48) in the third video.
"Ⲉⲙⲥⲁϩ" (4:27), "Ⲙⲁⲛⲥⲁϩϯ" (6:20), "Ⲣⲉϥⲥⲁϫⲓ" (6:29) and "Ⲁⲣⲏⲥⲁⲛϩⲟⲩⲣⲉ" (7:57) in the fouth video respectively.
(If there's one that is missing or not correctly written just tell me)
6:32 Is "Ⲥⲥ" only pronounce as /z/ when followed by "Ⲙⲙ" in words originated from Greek? I mean this because in Greek this can happen with Ββ, Γγ, or Μμ. So in words with "ⲥⲃ" and "ⲥⲅ" the "ⲥ" would be pronounced as /s/ right?
6:49 Following 6:23 I have the same question with /tˁ/ (Pronounced as "ط" from Arabic), is it that important or it's just an allophone? I can't hear the difference and here's the ones I've found for the other 4 videos:
"Ⲧⲁⲓ" (6:45), "Ⲕⲁⲧⲁ" (7:12), "Ⲧⲁⲓⲟ" (7:37), "Ⲧⲁⲕⲟ" (7:41), "Ⲧⲁⲟⲥ" (7:44), "Ⲧⲟⲧⲥ" (7:54), "Ⲕⲁⲧⲁⲃⲁⲥⲓⲥ" (8:37) and "Ⲥⲁⲃⲃⲁⲧⲟⲛ" (8:42) in the first video.
"Ⲏⲧⲟⲥ" (3:23), "Ⲭⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ" (5:32), "Ⲭⲣⲏⲥⲧⲟⲥ" (5:37), "Ϥⲧⲟⲩ" (8:52), "Ⲧⲁⲙⲁⲩ" (9:28) and "Ⲁϥⲧⲟⲛϥ" (10.26) in the second video.
"Ⲧⲁⲥⲑⲟ" (4:45), "Ϥ̀ⲧⲱⲟⲩ" (4:59), "Ⲑⲉⲟⲧⲟⲕⲟⲥ" (6:13), "Ⲧⲁⲝⲓⲥ" (9:03), and "Ϯⲉ̀ⲡⲓⲥⲧⲟⲗⲏ" (11:40) in the third video.
"Ⲟⲩⲧⲁϩ" (4:23), "Ⲧⲁⲗϭⲟ" (4:50) and "Ⲥⲧⲁϫⲟⲩⲗ" (6:34) in the fourth video respectively.
(If there's one that is missing or not correctly written just tell me)
6:58 Following with the 6:23 question we have the same situation were now "ⲛⲧ" is pronounced as /d/ like in Greek, but only in Loanwords. So from that statement the word "Ϥⲛⲧ" from the second video at (8:02) should be pronounced as /fd/. But in the video it is pronounced as /fint/. So what happened in here? My hypothesis is that "ϥⲛ" is weird to pronounce so you added a hidden "ⲓ" but then you pronounce /nt/ because it is from Coptic origin and not Greek origin right?
But what happens with "Ⲛ̀ⲧⲉ" in the third video at (3:15)? Because it is pronounced as /e̞nte̞/ as it should by the rules mentioned on that video. But the thing is, would this happen if the loanword has a "Ⲛⲛ" with Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ like shown in "Ⲛ̀ⲧ" or "ⲛ̀ⲧ" or they would be pronounced as /e̞d/ respectively?
6:58 Following the last comment but continuing with the same comment. Does "ⲙⲡ", "ⲧⲍ", "τσ", "ⲅⲭ" or "ⲅⲝ" form /p/, /d͡z/, /t͡s/ and /ŋ/ respectively when they are loanwords as how this digraphs would work in Greek or they'll be spoken as they're written?
7:39 This case is interesting... When the Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ is over a vowel this one is pronounced separately from the other syllable but for "Ⲩ̀ⲓⲟⲥ" this doesn't happen and instead it is pronounced as /e̞ijo̞s/ huh? Does this mean that "Ⲩⲩ" isn't considered a vowel even when it clearly makes that sound? Because if they wanted to make /e̞jo̞s/ they could have easily spell it like "Ⲉⲓⲟⲥ" or "Ⲉ̀ⲓⲟⲥ". Pretty sure this has something to do with the none existence of a Spelling reform right?
9:11 Related to the last one. You've only mention the "ⲛⲧ" this with "Ⲧⲧ" but would this same situation happen with "ϯ" too? For example something like "ⲛϯ" or "ⲛ̀ϯ", would those be pronounced as /di/ and /e̞di/ or like /nti/ and /e̞nti/ respectively? (The example given in 9:21 could be from Coptic origin so the Greek origin's version is still missing from explanation).
10:28 Following with 6:23 and 6:49 with /tˁ/ I'm leaving here the examples from the other videos (Not mentioning names):
"Ⲑⲁⲓ" (3:01), "Ⲛ̀ⲑⲟ" (3:20), "Ⲉⲑⲟⲩⲁⲃ" (4:40), "Ⲧⲁⲥⲑⲟ" (4:45), "Ⲑⲁⲙⲓⲟ" (5:15) and "Ⲅⲁⲃⲃⲁⲑⲁ" (5:37) in the third video.
(In the fourth video all the words with this situation seem to be correctly pronounced)
13:12 Why the mentioned consonants ("Ⲃⲃ", "Ⲇⲇ", "Ⲍⲍ", "Ⲗⲗ", "Ⲝⲝ", "Ⲣⲣ", "Ⲯⲯ" and "Ϯϯ") can't have a Ϫⲓⲛⲕⲓⲙ if there are some words where this consonants have an "Ⲉⲉ" preceding them? Wouldn't this rule only work for consonants that can't have an "Ⲉⲉ" before them?
15:33 Why "⳪" needs a line above if it's clearly a differentiated letter from all the others? Also, the line seems to be Only above the "ⲥ", why?
15:46 For some reason in certain fonts like the already mentioned "Athanasius" the ligature ⳧ appears to have a "ⲅⲥ" instead of "ⲥⲥ". Why does this happens? Is it just an error or it actually means something? I mean it because as mentioned in another comment the original word is "Ⲥⲧⲁⲩⲣⲟⲥ" and it doesn't have any "Ⲅⲅ". Even if it reflected something like "ςⲥ" it wouldn't make sense as the letter "ς" is used only at the end of a word so it should be "ⲥς" instead...
(I got the fonts from the Coptic Heritage website, but I'm sure there are more with this feature in other places).
16:18 This is a recommendation.
In the last 4 videos we've been working with single words and clearly some of them were pronounced slowly and pronouncing sometimes way too much certain consonants or vowels to make it clear. But even though I stop or slow down the video I think your pronounciation for the given First sentences in this video were too fast paced.
So I think that you should for example the next time you do this say something like: "I'm gonna repeat slowly and then I'll follow with my natural speed". Even more when the given words are New and you haven't showed it to us.
16:15 If an abbreviation that it's first letter is lowercase that means that they don't need to be uppercase when they are in at the beginning of a sentence? For example "ⲁ︦ⲗ︦" in the given example.
16:37 Why some words have a capital letter in the middle of the word? For example: "ⲠⲓⲬ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ", "ⲡ̀Ϣⲏⲣⲓ" and "ⲙ̀Ⲫϯ"? Shouldn't them be written like "Ⲡⲓⲭ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ"/"Ⲡⲓ-Ⲭ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ", "Ⲡ̀ϣⲏⲣ"-"Ⲡ̀-Ϣⲏⲣⲓ" and "Ⲙ̀ⲫϯ"-"Ⲙ̀-Ⲫϯ" respectively?
0:11 Lastly I have two questions not related to the video itself.
I'd like to ask if in the video you're gonna make about numbers you're gonna add the so called "Coptic Epact" numbers (Where "Ⲋ︦ⲋ︦" probably comes from).
I mean it because there's literally 0 videos in YT that explain those (That I could find).
And in case those aren't added (Sad moment) would there be a place for the (900) "Ⳁ︦ⳁ︦" Sampi?
1:03 - 18:25 What's the melody that sounds at the beginning and ending of a lesson? I couldn't find it.
1:20 Numbers are always placed in lowercase with a line on top. Some fonts will include an uppercase version of ⲋ, however that is unnecessary since such a character would rarely ever be used. I believe those that include it do so mostly for balance and aesthetics, but a capital ⲋ serves no function to the extent of my knowledge.
1:34 The Coptic manuscript displayed is the 'Pauline Epistles & Gospel of John,' preserved in the Chester Beatty Library. It is a Sahidic text from c. 600 AD. I used this manuscript because it was intact and the script was clear. The majority of the more ancient papyri I found were tattered and faded, and so wouldn’t be clear enough to demonstrate the variation in form/font. While the script in it is uncial, and there are no spaces between words, some diacritical markers and punctuation signs had begun to develop by that time. I am not one hundred percent sure what all the different markings are, but from observation, I can point out the following. The diaeresis was employed in Sahidic, similar to Greek, but was not common in Bohairic. The lines on top of words serve as both abbreviations and a variant of jinkim, depending on the case. For example the first line reads ⲡⲁⲩⲗⲟⲥ ⲡϩ̅ⲙϩⲁⲗ ⲛ̅ⲓⲥ̅̅ ⲡⲉⲭ̅ⲥ̅. I believe that the lines over the ϩ̅ and ⲛ̅ are variants of Jinkim, while ⲓ̅ⲥ̅ ⲡⲉⲭ̅ⲥ̅ is a Sahidic variant of the abbreviations Ⲓⲏ̅ⲥ̅ Ⲡⲓx̅c̅, which are shorthand for Jesus Christ. As for the “.” “:” and “:-” these are all old Sahidic punctuation marks. Finally I am not sure what the swooshes by the "Ϣ" and "Ⲅ" are.
5:09 Sorry for any undue confusion, but I myself am not an IPA expert, and all the Coptic Texts books I’ve ever come across, never use IPA to explain pronunciation. They stick to using comparisons to English and Arabic phonemes for reference. I tried to do the IPA pronunciations based on what limited understanding I have with regards to that field. So, I apologize if my transcription were not accurate. However, the Ⲓ at the start of the word is almost always described as having a y like sound. Serving as a semi-vowel. If you want to add an imaginary ⲉ sense of it you can, but that's just how I’ve been taught to pronounce I at the start of a word. I can’t explain why or how, all I can say is it is what it is. Most likely for my explanation in the second video I got confused by what the IPA symbols were actually representing, but it is the common rule that I is pronounced like a y when it starts a word, or when it is followed by a vowel.
6:23 The /sˁ/ in Coptic is not as well pronounced or apparent as it is in Arabic. Proper pronunciation prescribed it per the rule if followed by the aforementioned vowels, but it is not an issue if it is not apparently emphasized. Most people end up pronouncing it similarly to the S in sole/soul or in son/sun.
@@m4rloncha 6:32 From what I’ve read it only does so when followed by a Ⲙ.
6:49 As a native speaker of Arabic, I can tell you that the majority of online demos I heard online for /sˁ/ and /tˁ/ are over emphasized. We never pronounce them that prominently, they make a show of pronouncing them in an attempt to teach. The /tˁ/ is kind of similar to the t in tall and talk. Much softer than demo videos make it out to be.
6:58 The Ⲧ is pronounced like a /d/ if followed by Ⲛ in words of Greek origin. "Ϥⲛⲧ" “ⲛ̀ⲧⲉ” are both native Coptic words, and so, the rule doesn’t apply there. Also in this convention the /n/ is not eliminated, the /t/ is simply converted to a /d/. You can see this clearly in the sample word used “ⲟⲛⲧⲱⲥ” a Greek loan word pronounced as /o̞ndo̞ːs/. Both the /t/ to /d/ and /s/ to /z/ transformations are rare phenomena observed only in words of Greek origin.
Concerning "ⲙⲡ", "ⲧⲍ", "τσ", these are all pronounced as written, and no diagraphs are observed for them in Coptic. As for "ⲅⲭ" or "ⲅⲝ" the ⲅ shifts to /n/ not a full /ŋ/ since that phoneme does not exist in Coptic, so they are pronounced like “ⲛⲭ” and “ⲛⲝ.” This is stated later in the video when we covered Ⲅ in detail. 9:57
7:39 I believe this has to do with the fact that Ⲩ is a semi-vowel, and not a vowel in its own right. So when it has a jinkim added it gets treated like a consonant, rather than a vowel, hence the addition of an e. This is also a Greek loanword so that further complicates things.
9:11 Ϯ is a demotic letter so it only exists in words of Coptic origin. Both ⲧ and ϯ used to be pronounced as /d/ and /di/ in some Coptic words in the Late/Old Bohairic pronunciation, however, following the 19th century reform this stopped. Ϯ is never pronounced as a /di/ but always as a /ti/, and ⲧ is never pronounced as a /d/ in words of Coptic origin, only in Greek loan words when followed by ⲛ.
10:28 I’ve addressed this issue earlier, but I will take a chance to explain a little more here. The inclusion for these rules for pronouncing /sˁ/ and /tˁ/ in Greco-Bohairic is sort of an attempt at reconciling Greco and Late/Old Bohairic. These pronunciations are only mentioned in more scholarly textbooks of Bohairic with the aim being to preserve as much as possible of the language's original pronunciation. However, most Coptic lessons for beginners will not teach those pronunciations and will simply stick to the simple convention of one phoneme per graph with ⲥ, ⲧ, and ⲑ, always being pronounced as simple /s/, /t/, and /θ/. I was unsure which convention to follow originally, however, as the series went on I decided to become more and more precise with the rules of pronunciation prescribed in text-books rather than the common conventions used in beginners lessons offered in Churches. I hope this explains the inconsistency that may be apparent with regards to those pronunciations. In the end, while the most accurate way for pronunciation is to follow the rules prescribed in the textbooks, many choose not to and simply follow the simplified pronunciations.
13:12 This is an observational rule. I am not sure why these letters never have a jinkim on them, but textbooks say that they never do.
@@m4rloncha 15:33 The convention is to still place a line on top of it. I am not sure why exactly. The line length is a technical issue. The unicode keyboard I use has a standard line length that should be long enough to cover any single character. Since the two letters are attached, it registered them as one character, and so it only allowed me to add one line on top of ⲥ.
15:46 I have seen that variant abbreviation, but I am not sure why it looks so. Keep in mind that the Coptic Ⲥ is the Greek Σ, yet it looks more like ς than σ. Maybe ς wasn’t always reserved for the end of a word? Not exactly sure what the answer to this one is.
16:18 I am so Sorry!
16:16 For abbreviations, only nouns are ever capitalized, other than that, they are kept lowercase, even at the start of a sentence. To get around this especially with words like alleluia and kyrie eleison that are repeated many times back to back, the first instance is spelled out so that it is capitalized and the rest are abbreviated. For example, Ⲁⲗⲗⲏⲗⲟⲩⲓⲁ: ⲁ̅ⲗ̅: ⲁ̅ⲗ̅.
16:37 Coptic capitalization is not well standardized. You tend to capitalize words at the start of a sentence, nouns, and words of theological importance. However the jury is still out with regards to attached particles to nouns. ⲡⲓ and ⲡ̀ are both particles that mean “the.” Some people say you should capitalize the particle at the start of a word, but not the word itself, as in Ⲡⲓⲭ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ and Ⲡ̀ϣⲏⲣⲓ. Others say you should do the opposite, leaving the particle as lowercase and capitalizing the word as in ⲡⲓⲬ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ and ⲡ̀Ϣⲏⲣⲓ. Others say to compromise and capitalize both ⲠⲓⲬ̀ⲣⲓⲥⲧⲟⲥ and Ⲡ̀Ϣⲏⲣⲓ. I am personally inconsistent when it comes to picking which to do. Coptic never separates particles from words with dashes. This may be done for demonstrative purposes in lessons and textbooks, but particles are always fully attached.
I am not sure whether I will make a numbers video soon. This series has taken longer than expected to produce and I feel that it's time to cover something else before talking about numbers. But I will try to do some research into the Epact numbers in case I do make a numbers video.
Lastly, the name of the channel Ⲱⲥⲡⲉⲣ ⲏⲛ/As it was is the title of a Greek hymn of the Coptic liturgy. The melody at the start and end of the video is the harmony of the start of this hymn. It is personally one of my favorite hymns of the Coptic Liturgy. I will attach a few versions of it for you below.
English Version, Choir : th-cam.com/video/sk7ZF1ip7Xg/w-d-xo.html
Greek Version, Choir and Music : www.davidensemble.com/multimedia/complete_albums/hymns_basilius_mass_2/Choir_and_music/Track_10.mp3
Instrumental Version, (Intro and Outro audio): media.tasbeha.org/mp3/Songs/Instrumental/Fr.Antonious_Zikry/Liturgy_Hymns/22.As_it_was.mp3
I hope you enjoy this hymn as much as I do!
16:22 I think you wrote the sentence wrong, instead of ϥⲁⲓ it's ⲫⲁⲓ with a "ⲫ" letter.
16:45 it is ⲉⲧⲱⲛϧ not ⲉⲧⲟⲛϧ.
You are 100% correct. Unfortunately I type these out (sometimes from memory), so some time typos slip in unnoticed.
The original language of the so-called "Zabur" or "Mazmur"?
Coptics are the TRUE Egyptians, the true descendants of the Estern Romans.
Coptic has probably the richest of languages in its history. It was spoken in an unbroken literate society from 3200 BC to AD 1800.
Wanna know something funny, both Ϥ and the Cyrillic letter Che (Ч), which look nearly identical to eachother, both have a numerical value of ninety, historically, the Cyrillic numeral for 90 was coppa (Ҁ), descended from the greek letter koppa (Ϙ) (which the letter Q descended from) also meant 90, so Ϥ, Ч, & Q (all be it indirectly in Qs case) have something in common in a way
Cyril and Methodius did indeed borrow from Coptic when coming up with the Cyrillic alphabet.
Amazing video. What's the difference between ⳨ and ⳧ ?
Both are a "Staurogram" or a "Monogrammatic cross", that is, the Greek's ligature for "Τ" and "Ρ", "Tau" and "Rho".
As mentioned in 15:46 the original word is "Ⲥⲧⲁⲩⲣⲟⲥ" in Coptic, "Σταυρός"/"σταυρός" in Greek that means "Cross".
Both means the same thing but are represented differently:
In ⳨ they just add the "Τ" and "Ρ" (Which appears in both versions too). This is originally used as a Greek ligature.
But ⳧ also adds the two simas "Ⲥⲥ" from the beginning and end of the word. This one is purely Coptic as the Greek language doesn't have that letter represented like that but as "Σσς".
If you ever see a "⳧" with what seems a "ϭⲥ" ligature is probably just the Greek representation (σς) instead of Shima (Ϭ) + Sima (Ⲥ). Is very rare though, but you have to take that in mind.
So if you don't mind a little bit of Greek in your Coptic texts just use ⳨, but if you want to be more pure in your Coptic texts use ⳧ (Though both are correct and mean the same thing).
@@m4rloncha Agree completely.