I don't understand an example with savings. In Switzerland the majority speaks German or French. In both languages the future is detached from the present: Ich esse jetzt - Ich werde essen morgen. Je mange maintenant - Je vais manger demain.
Turkic Languages have no grammatical gender, neither do Mongolian, Japanese, or Korean. Chinese has no gender differences verbally: tā = he, tā = she. However the difference pops up in the writing.
Oh and Chinese (Mandarin) has no grammatical gender, it only has differences in pronoun (he/she/it are actually all the same verbally). In fact, Chinese has no ending changes, is only hard (imo) to learn (from an Indo-European standpoint) due to it's being tonal and the semi-pictographic writing system.
@@oyonggofomocci2078 For all I know, the gender difference in Chinese writing is due to the "bad influence" of the West. I'd say that there are yet other other factors that make Chinese difficult: e. g. the classifiers, the modal particles... sometimes being unable to tell exactly where a word starts and where it ends. Classical Chinese is a wholly different story and much more complicated than modern Chinese.
Wowo it's quite far fetched to claim that Luxembourg or Switzerland residents are doing much better financially because of their multilingualism. It's much more complicated than that.
La guitarra- female nound "guitar" Ir de compras- a verb meaning "to go shopping" (no gender) Both of these examples don't fit with the gender he emphasizes as an example.
@@Donello That's why they are actually called categories, not genders in polish. Yes, there are 3 grammatical genders but for all intents and purposes there are 5 separate grammatical categories.
@@kacperwoch4368 You're positive there's no grammatical category called "rodzaj" in Polish grammar? In other Slavic languages where there's a distinction between being animate and inanimate, it's NOT EITHER masculine OR feminine OR neuter OR animate OR inanimate, its masculine animate/inanimate; feminine animate/inanimate; neuter inanimate (technically, since children of both humans and animals are considered inanimate). So being animate or inanimate is not on the same level as being of masculine, feminine or neuter gender, it's a subdivision for the purposes of declension (accusative taking the form of the nominative for inanimate nouns and of the genitive for animate nouns). That's why I was astonished that you put gender and (in)animateness on the same level.
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Interesting talk . Thank you, bless you. All your dreams come true.
A very enriching talk 👍
I grew up as a monolingual Spanish speaker and I always pictured time as a long horizontal line :P
In the English, you could use extra adjective to modify, such as dark blue and light blue.
I don't understand an example with savings. In Switzerland the majority speaks German or French. In both languages the future is detached from the present: Ich esse jetzt - Ich werde essen morgen. Je mange maintenant - Je vais manger demain.
So if I learn swedish I can possibly save money?
Turkic Languages have no grammatical gender, neither do Mongolian, Japanese, or Korean.
Chinese has no gender differences verbally: tā = he, tā = she. However the difference pops up in the writing.
Oh and Chinese (Mandarin) has no grammatical gender, it only has differences in pronoun (he/she/it are actually all the same verbally). In fact, Chinese has no ending changes, is only hard (imo) to learn (from an Indo-European standpoint) due to it's being tonal and the semi-pictographic writing system.
@@oyonggofomocci2078 For all I know, the gender difference in Chinese writing is due to the "bad influence" of the West.
I'd say that there are yet other other factors that make Chinese difficult: e. g. the classifiers, the modal particles... sometimes being unable to tell exactly where a word starts and where it ends. Classical Chinese is a wholly different story and much more complicated than modern Chinese.
In Chile, we speak Spanish and it is The same as they do in English
Wowo it's quite far fetched to claim that Luxembourg or Switzerland residents are doing much better financially because of their multilingualism. It's much more complicated than that.
What is the name of that series
La guitarra- female nound "guitar"
Ir de compras- a verb meaning "to go shopping" (no gender)
Both of these examples don't fit with the gender he emphasizes as an example.
My language has 5 grammatical 'genders'.
Polish? I thought it had only three genders and two cathegories (animated-inanimated).
@@Donello That's why they are actually called categories, not genders in polish. Yes, there are 3 grammatical genders but for all intents and purposes there are 5 separate grammatical categories.
@@kacperwoch4368 You're positive there's no grammatical category called "rodzaj" in Polish grammar?
In other Slavic languages where there's a distinction between being animate and inanimate, it's NOT
EITHER masculine OR feminine OR neuter OR animate OR inanimate, its
masculine animate/inanimate; feminine animate/inanimate; neuter inanimate (technically, since children of both humans and animals are considered inanimate).
So being animate or inanimate is not on the same level as being of masculine, feminine or neuter gender, it's a subdivision for the purposes of declension (accusative taking the form of the nominative for inanimate nouns and of the genitive for animate nouns).
That's why I was astonished that you put gender and (in)animateness on the same level.