1) Do you support the equivocation of the word "God" in John 1:1? 2) If not, do you then identify the Word as the Father? 3) Where does 'word' ever refer to a person anywhere other than John 1? John's Gospel is very questionable since it refers so completely oddly to the words of Jesus and others in contrast to the synoptics. It also presents Jesus as dying ON Passover in contrast to the synoptics. The Gospel of John is more of a story than a reality.
Don’t you feel that the predicate nominative clause “and the Word was God” requires that “Logos” is a PERSON (because the word “God” is a personal noun)? Further, the Son is called “Logos” (Word) in Rev. 19:13 as a proper name or title. Therefore, John 1:1 makes perfect sense when “Logos” is taken as a proper name or title simply because of His primary mission as Yahweh’s Messenger.
@@ThePristineFaith Which came first? Revelation or John's Gospel? And again, define the term 'word' with the OT and you will never find it referring to a real person any more than the personification of "Wisdom" in Proverbs? Do you think "Wisdom" is a real woman next to God at creation? Also, if John's Gospel is in alignment with 1st John, read 1 John 1 where he somewhat illuminates on his Gospel and says the "word" as "eternal life" which became manifest in Jesus Christ. "eternal life" is what 1 John 1 defines as "with the Father" and then became made known in Jesus. It doesn't say Jesus was there.
1) Do you support the equivocation of the word "God" in John 1:1?
2) If not, do you then identify the Word as the Father?
3) Where does 'word' ever refer to a person anywhere other than John 1?
John's Gospel is very questionable since it refers so completely oddly to the words of Jesus and others in contrast to the synoptics. It also presents Jesus as dying ON Passover in contrast to the synoptics. The Gospel of John is more of a story than a reality.
Don’t you feel that the predicate nominative clause “and the Word was God” requires that “Logos” is a PERSON (because the word “God” is a personal noun)?
Further, the Son is called “Logos” (Word) in Rev. 19:13 as a proper name or title. Therefore, John 1:1 makes perfect sense when “Logos” is taken as a proper name or title simply because of His primary mission as Yahweh’s Messenger.
@@ThePristineFaith Which came first? Revelation or John's Gospel? And again, define the term 'word' with the OT and you will never find it referring to a real person any more than the personification of "Wisdom" in Proverbs? Do you think "Wisdom" is a real woman next to God at creation?
Also, if John's Gospel is in alignment with 1st John, read 1 John 1 where he somewhat illuminates on his Gospel and says the "word" as "eternal life" which became manifest in Jesus Christ. "eternal life" is what 1 John 1 defines as "with the Father" and then became made known in Jesus. It doesn't say Jesus was there.