Thank you. Dear Viewers, at 0:52, the term on the left hand side of the equation is of first order and not second order derivative. For heat equation: first order For wave equation: second order.
sir at 20:06 we should directly put A*n in the equation of u(x,y), don't need to calculate An because we will directly get the value of A* itself Also at start you wrote d2u/dt2 but I think it should be du/dt though it doesn't affect the derivation
0:52 it is wave equation
Thank you.
Dear Viewers, at 0:52, the term on the left hand side of the equation is of first order and not second order derivative.
For heat equation: first order
For wave equation: second order.
sir at 20:06 we should directly put A*n in the equation of u(x,y), don't need to calculate An because we will directly get the value of A* itself
Also at start you wrote d2u/dt2 but I think it should be du/dt though it doesn't affect the derivation
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Thank you Sir for all the top class content which you are providing to us. As a COEP student, I know the value of your lectures. Thanks a lot sir ☺️
Glad to hear that Parth. Hope paper went well 😊
@@DrMathaholic yess sir
thank you sir 🙏 now my concept is clear it was the best lecture over all channeles
Glad to hear that..thank you.. :)
Pls elaborate how we will change x & y in this general equation if the boundary conditions is 1 on right, bottom and left wall
Sir, at 18:47, the property is for integration from -a to a but, our integration was from 0 to 2. Then how it is applied to this integration?
Good question!! I was expecting someone to ask.😀
Integrand is even function so I write outside 2/2 then numerator 2 will go away when I write limits -2 to 2. Then i can apply this theorem.
I hope this clears your doubt.
@@DrMathaholic Yes Sir. Thank You!
@@madhurwagle8694 great
A1 =1/sinh(π)
A1= 1/sinh(π) 20:25
We had been together in some workshop
Yes Irshad. How are you? I remember 😊 AFS I, at CMI in December 2012, i guess.
@@DrMathaholic Yes I am good and u, what is current status of Maharashtra
@@irshadsirslectures4446 very bad!! Hope situation gets improve soon.
Hope you enjoyed the lecture 😀 pls share with your students as well.
@@DrMathaholic sure sir send ur Watsapp number on fb as we are friends there
sir An=0.28
Thank you Om for commenting the answer...
A1= 1/sinh(π) 20:25
A1= 1/sinh(π)