This was an excellent teaching. What is really disturbing is that you never hear the subject of divorce and remarriage discussed in the churches. They have totally buried the issue. The pastors are afraid to discuss it. Now does everyone understand why the Christian churches have totally lost authority?
Im writing a book on this subject. I have reviewed a LOT of material. You and i have the same conclusions on every point. Of particular note is that the exception clauses are to prevent the sin of causing the other to commit adultery. In addition you also see Deut 24:1-4 as a restriction on remarriage, (how did she get defiled?)something the jews of the day should have known, (maybe the Essenses did brw) im not a catholic, i dont know what i am anymore, but i know you have this right. You are careful and express the views of the detractors well.
The NABRE correctly translates “mh epi porneia” as “unless the marriage is unlawful”. Unlawful marriages that would be prohibited, should be repented from through divorce document.
What does the Catholic Church say about getting married to a divorced person who was only legally married? Or what about wanting to marry a divorced person who was married through a separate religion?
You state that a man cannot return to his wife after divorce. Could you provide scripture that supports that position? Corinthians 7 states we should pray for reconciliation and the book of Hosea depicts a habitually adulteress wife.
Great question. Thank you for asking. We believe that a man can return to his wife after a divorce, but cannot return to his wife after a divorce *and* remarriage. We believe that Paul gives two options for the divorcee in 1 Corinthians 7, to remain single or be reconciled. He does not say to marry someone else and then be reconciled to your first spouse. We believe he is speaking to and affirming a mode of separation that does not entail remarriage at all. And that reconciliation is out of his purview if a remarriage takes place. An intervening covenant does change things. And the main reason for our believing this is Deuteronomy 24:1-4. "When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, when she has departed from his house, and goes and becomes another man’s wife, if the latter husband detests her and writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her as his wife, then her former husband who divorced her must not take her back to be his wife after she has been defiled; for that is an abomination before the Lord, and you shall not bring sin on the land which the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance." There are plenty of alternative views which seek to dismiss this passage, but we believe the legislative element in the passage, the prohibition of return, is in harmony with what Christ teaches on marriage. The passage does not affirm divorce as a good thing or legislate its necessity, it is only dealing with the reality of divorce at the time. It is a permission that Moses allowed for hardness of heart, which Jesus does do away with. This is distinct from the prohibition of return which Jesus does not do away with as He does not address the prohibition of return. The passage also states that the second marriage defiles the woman, which is in consonance with Jesus' teaching that a remarriage is also a defilement, specifically, adultery. We believe Jeremiah 3 actually affirms the reality and continuance of the prohibition of return, even while analogously depicting unfaithful Israel and Judah's return to the Lord after their allegorical marriages to sin. If we are to take our ethical imperatives from this spiritual analogy we would also have to affirm polygamy and even marriage to children as those elements also exist in Jeremiah 3. So, we derive our ethical imperatives from the clear Scriptures of law rather than poetic analogies. Poetic analogies do have ethical weight, but when in conflict with direct law, we privilege direct law. In Hosea, Gomer plays the harlot, which typically refers to whoredom or prostitution. It doesn't appear she's getting married and making covenants. However, in Hosea 1:10 thru chapter 2, the narrative switches from Gomer to Israel, and we once again have unfaithful Israel marrying multiple men, and returning to her first husband. This places us back into the same hermeneutic as with Jeremiah 3. The purpose of the book of Hosea is not to give us ethical imperatives, otherwise we should all seek to marry prostitutes. The purpose of Hosea is to show the redemption and reconciliation of God's people corporately. While these passages have been used to dismiss the law of God in Deuteronomy 24:1-4, sometimes to the point of discounting it as being of God, we do not believe it is enough to not give deference to the grave warnings found therein.
Re Deut 24.4. Jesus called remarriage adultery. Therefore a remarriage is adultery... Its not even considered a marriage. Why would the covenant of the original marriage be broken at all when it is unto death? Jesus overrules moses in Matthew 5.32 and calls remarriage adultery. Besides why did the man in deuteronomy 24. 4 divorce his wife? It wasn't for adultery. Look at the reason for the divorce the word is used for incest or something similar it was probably an illegitimate marriage. Whatever the reason moses didn't let her return Jesus did. We don't need to worry about defiling the land now as we have CHRIST. You can't say marriage is permanent but also say that it isn't in the same breath. It makes no sense. If marriage is permanent then adultery via a remarriage doesn't end the covenant so of course a couple can be reconciled after an intervening remarriage as the remarriage was adultery...The Lord showed me that my vows to my first husband stand until one of us dies. The remarraige i entered into was simply an adulterous union and it didnt negate my original vows. Adultery is a forgivable sin - so Jesus has forgiven me for the adultery and i am free to be reconciled to my 1st husband as the original covenant was never broken.
@@redeemed.and.restoredExcatly 2nd "Marriage" is adultery period. I disagree with this man of once remarried cannot reconcile with 1st husband.Only Death breaks a covenent.we are NOT under Mosaic law.
@@redeemed.and.restoredagree, we are not under Moses, but Jesus. The covenant marriage only ends in death according to the Word of GOD in Gen 2:24, Matt 19: 6, 1 Cor 7:39.
I haven't seen such exegesis in years. Thank you for the in-depth scriptural explanations. Our churches have veered so far away from the teachings of the Word just to tickle ears and make a profit. So many church leaders are afraid of hurting feelings.
Once you give permission to somebody for sin, they will grab it with both hands and try their best not to let go. This error was first introduced in Babylon (Ezra 9-10) and infused and perpetuated by the Scribes and Pharisees, who hybridized God’s law and the king’s caselaw. After Jesus corrected the misunderstanding that he identified as “leaven”, Erasmus and Luther re-introduced it through their hermetic humanism.
"Non believers their marriages are valid" I believe so. But some denominations teach that "if an unbeliver departs, the christian partner is not bound and can remarry. " Is that so? Also they say if divorce happens before the wife/husband becomes christian, he/she can remarry bc the divorced is now "a new creature" and that the past has passed" Is that so?
No. We would say natural marriages, those marriages outside the Church, still have the same binding covenantal effect. And that if an unbeliever departs, the believer is not bound to follow them, but to remain single and pray for reconciliation. God bless!
@@SaintAthanasiusChurchThanks for the quick reply. Few questions: Do you support the concept of perpetual sin? How about in a scenario of long time second marriage? I mean some have a number of children from the second marriage (and from the 1st too) but the second marriage might have stayed for decades. Is it appropriate to separate the second marriage to be free from sin? What about in a case of a shortly lived marriage? I know someone that was married and divorce within few months. No child. His wife married another and he is single now. Is he supposed to be single the rest of his life? The other question: Is sex=marriage? If someone has sex with a girl, is he considered married to her? And so if he is considered married, will it be adultery if he is married to another girl?
At 6:05 the defilement is adultery (not ceremonial defilement), but she cannot be executed because she was adulterated by her husband, not by her own actions. IOW she is a victim of the divorce decree by the fact that she was put to the remarriage by being sent out of her proper home. It would be unjust to apply the sentence of death the same as in the case of a wife who adulterates herself. This is the clarification Jesus gave in Matt. 5:32 about Deut. 24:1's bill of divorce, that a husband who issues one will be blamed for his wife's adultery.
Yes, death allows someone to marry again. "A wife is bound by law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband dies, she is at liberty to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord." (1 Corinthians 7:39)
So do we. It is not unpardonable. One needs only to repent of it by forsaking it, just like any other sin. A thief must repent by forsaking thievery. A liar must repent by forsaking lying. An adulterer must repent by forsaking adultery.
we need to instill in our kids that even if they marry the anti Christ, it is covenant if it is a first time marriage and can never be sin to be repented of #remarriageisadultery
Jesus allows for divorce in the case of sexual immorality but where do you see that he says there shall be no remarriage? I mean it's just an interpretation without him actually saying it one way or another? And to quote Paul or anybody else to me would seem Christ's words are superior.
Jesus does allow for divorce in the case of sexual immorality, but He does not allow for remarriage. He states plainly numerous times that remarriage is adultery. "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her. And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.” (Mark 10:11-12) "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery." (Luke 16:18) Earlier in Matthew 5, Jesus also does not give an exception to remarry. "But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery. And whoever marries her that is divorced commits adultery. " Notice Jesus is simply saying the man is not culpable for her adultery if he divorced her for sexual immorality. It is not a permission to remarry, only an exception to the culpability of the husband in this case. And furthermore, he adds, in the Majority Textual tradition, that whoever marries her commits adultery without qualifying it by saying, "whoever marries her commits adultery, unless she was divorced for adultery."
@@redeemed.and.restored Then he says to look at a woman with lust is adultery...so...He is definitely talking about standards...but did He command never to divorce..or is He talking about standards.
Yeah but we all know due to sin.. that people can marry the wrong person. Unless you believe that God does not have a will for your life and someone is unable to go outside of God's will. So if God wills you to marry a particular person but it didn't happen and they end up marrying someone that wasn't God's will.. then their marriage is not in God's blessing in my opinion. Unless you think everything that everyone does is in the will of God. Secondly, Jesus Christ does say that you can get a divorce because of sexual immorality and that's indisputable and I can understand how us as Catholics can say that you cannot get a divorce because of sexual immorality.. even in your own convictions of morality you would understand that someone who's having sexual relations with another person during your marriage has broken that contract and commitment. God has a will for you and your life and has chosen the person you should marry from the beginning of your life and perhaps before. When you work outside of the will of God for your life things don't work right.
Hi Joe. We addressed some of these things above in reply to some of your comments. But we will state briefly here that we agree one can divorce for sexual immorality, but that it is God's will to remain single or be reconciled. In one sense we all marry the wrong person. Everyone will find that their partner is a sinner, and incompatible with you in some way. But God has shown us that the way to overcome this is by obeying His will and loving their partner the way Christ has loved us, which means forgiving sins, being patient, and kind, and longsuffering. The frictions in marriage are ways that God sanctifies us and makes us more like Himself.
This was an excellent teaching. What is really disturbing is that you never hear the subject of divorce and remarriage discussed in the churches. They have totally buried the issue. The pastors are afraid to discuss it. Now does everyone understand why the Christian churches have totally lost authority?
Your teaching on this subject is absolutely correct
The certificate of divorce i think was more about dowry and financial things than it was a permission to remarry. Both in ancient and modern times.
Im writing a book on this subject. I have reviewed a LOT of material. You and i have the same conclusions on every point. Of particular note is that the exception clauses are to prevent the sin of causing the other to commit adultery. In addition you also see Deut 24:1-4 as a restriction on remarriage, (how did she get defiled?)something the jews of the day should have known, (maybe the Essenses did brw) im not a catholic, i dont know what i am anymore, but i know you have this right. You are careful and express the views of the detractors well.
The NABRE correctly translates “mh epi porneia” as
“unless the marriage is unlawful”.
Unlawful marriages that would be prohibited, should be repented from through divorce document.
What does the Catholic Church say about getting married to a divorced person who was only legally married? Or what about wanting to marry a divorced person who was married through a separate religion?
You state that a man cannot return to his wife after divorce. Could you provide scripture that supports that position? Corinthians 7 states we should pray for reconciliation and the book of Hosea depicts a habitually adulteress wife.
Great question. Thank you for asking. We believe that a man can return to his wife after a divorce, but cannot return to his wife after a divorce *and* remarriage. We believe that Paul gives two options for the divorcee in 1 Corinthians 7, to remain single or be reconciled. He does not say to marry someone else and then be reconciled to your first spouse. We believe he is speaking to and affirming a mode of separation that does not entail remarriage at all. And that reconciliation is out of his purview if a remarriage takes place. An intervening covenant does change things. And the main reason for our believing this is Deuteronomy 24:1-4.
"When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, when she has departed from his house, and goes and becomes another man’s wife, if the latter husband detests her and writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her as his wife, then her former husband who divorced her must not take her back to be his wife after she has been defiled; for that is an abomination before the Lord, and you shall not bring sin on the land which the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance."
There are plenty of alternative views which seek to dismiss this passage, but we believe the legislative element in the passage, the prohibition of return, is in harmony with what Christ teaches on marriage. The passage does not affirm divorce as a good thing or legislate its necessity, it is only dealing with the reality of divorce at the time. It is a permission that Moses allowed for hardness of heart, which Jesus does do away with. This is distinct from the prohibition of return which Jesus does not do away with as He does not address the prohibition of return. The passage also states that the second marriage defiles the woman, which is in consonance with Jesus' teaching that a remarriage is also a defilement, specifically, adultery.
We believe Jeremiah 3 actually affirms the reality and continuance of the prohibition of return, even while analogously depicting unfaithful Israel and Judah's return to the Lord after their allegorical marriages to sin. If we are to take our ethical imperatives from this spiritual analogy we would also have to affirm polygamy and even marriage to children as those elements also exist in Jeremiah 3. So, we derive our ethical imperatives from the clear Scriptures of law rather than poetic analogies. Poetic analogies do have ethical weight, but when in conflict with direct law, we privilege direct law.
In Hosea, Gomer plays the harlot, which typically refers to whoredom or prostitution. It doesn't appear she's getting married and making covenants. However, in Hosea 1:10 thru chapter 2, the narrative switches from Gomer to Israel, and we once again have unfaithful Israel marrying multiple men, and returning to her first husband. This places us back into the same hermeneutic as with Jeremiah 3. The purpose of the book of Hosea is not to give us ethical imperatives, otherwise we should all seek to marry prostitutes. The purpose of Hosea is to show the redemption and reconciliation of God's people corporately.
While these passages have been used to dismiss the law of God in Deuteronomy 24:1-4, sometimes to the point of discounting it as being of God, we do not believe it is enough to not give deference to the grave warnings found therein.
Re Deut 24.4. Jesus called remarriage adultery. Therefore a remarriage is adultery... Its not even considered a marriage. Why would the covenant of the original marriage be broken at all when it is unto death? Jesus overrules moses in Matthew 5.32 and calls remarriage adultery. Besides why did the man in deuteronomy 24. 4 divorce his wife? It wasn't for adultery. Look at the reason for the divorce the word is used for incest or something similar it was probably an illegitimate marriage. Whatever the reason moses didn't let her return Jesus did. We don't need to worry about defiling the land now as we have CHRIST. You can't say marriage is permanent but also say that it isn't in the same breath. It makes no sense. If marriage is permanent then adultery via a remarriage doesn't end the covenant so of course a couple can be reconciled after an intervening remarriage as the remarriage was adultery...The Lord showed me that my vows to my first husband stand until one of us dies. The remarraige i entered into was simply an adulterous union and it didnt negate my original vows. Adultery is a forgivable sin - so Jesus has forgiven me for the adultery and i am free to be reconciled to my 1st husband as the original covenant was never broken.
@@redeemed.and.restoredExcatly 2nd "Marriage" is adultery period. I disagree with this man of once remarried cannot reconcile with 1st husband.Only Death breaks a covenent.we are NOT under Mosaic law.
@@redeemed.and.restoredagree, we are not under Moses, but Jesus. The covenant marriage only ends in death according to the Word of GOD in Gen 2:24, Matt 19: 6, 1 Cor 7:39.
I haven't seen such exegesis in years. Thank you for the in-depth scriptural explanations. Our churches have veered so far away from the teachings of the Word just to tickle ears and make a profit. So many church leaders are afraid of hurting feelings.
Excellent teaching
Once you give permission to somebody for sin, they will grab it with both hands and try their best not to let go.
This error was first introduced in Babylon (Ezra 9-10) and infused and perpetuated by the Scribes and Pharisees, who hybridized God’s law and the king’s caselaw.
After Jesus corrected the misunderstanding that he identified as “leaven”, Erasmus and Luther re-introduced it through their hermetic humanism.
"Non believers their marriages are valid" I believe so. But some denominations teach that "if an unbeliver departs, the christian partner is not bound and can remarry. " Is that so? Also they say if divorce happens before the wife/husband becomes christian, he/she can remarry bc the divorced is now "a new creature" and that the past has passed" Is that so?
No. We would say natural marriages, those marriages outside the Church, still have the same binding covenantal effect. And that if an unbeliever departs, the believer is not bound to follow them, but to remain single and pray for reconciliation. God bless!
@@SaintAthanasiusChurchThanks for the quick reply. Few questions: Do you support the concept of perpetual sin? How about in a scenario of long time second marriage? I mean some have a number of children from the second marriage (and from the 1st too) but the second marriage might have stayed for decades. Is it appropriate to separate the second marriage to be free from sin? What about in a case of a shortly lived marriage? I know someone that was married and divorce within few months. No child. His wife married another and he is single now. Is he supposed to be single the rest of his life? The other question: Is sex=marriage? If someone has sex with a girl, is he considered married to her? And so if he is considered married, will it be adultery if he is married to another girl?
At 6:05 the defilement is adultery (not ceremonial defilement), but she cannot be executed because she was adulterated by her husband, not by her own actions. IOW she is a victim of the divorce decree by the fact that she was put to the remarriage by being sent out of her proper home. It would be unjust to apply the sentence of death the same as in the case of a wife who adulterates herself. This is the clarification Jesus gave in Matt. 5:32 about Deut. 24:1's bill of divorce, that a husband who issues one will be blamed for his wife's adultery.
Very likely. We would probably agree.
There's important repenting that needs to be done!
Divorce all by itself is a kind of adultery. Matthew 19:9
So the people should just live together in sin is that better?
Sound teaching. Thank you. Make sure you include yourself in the problem of sin and its destruction....I could see the log in your eye from here.
What exactly is the log in my eye? I would like to know so that I can repent of it. Thank you.
Well in that case what about death? If there is no exception then why is death in marriage vows that it would do them part?
Yes, death allows someone to marry again. "A wife is bound by law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband dies, she is at liberty to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord." (1 Corinthians 7:39)
Dear Pastor, so many Pastors claim remarriage is not the unpardonable sin?
So do we. It is not unpardonable. One needs only to repent of it by forsaking it, just like any other sin. A thief must repent by forsaking thievery. A liar must repent by forsaking lying. An adulterer must repent by forsaking adultery.
we need to instill in our kids that even if they marry the anti Christ, it is covenant if it is a first time marriage and can never be sin to be repented of #remarriageisadultery
Jesus allows for divorce in the case of sexual immorality but where do you see that he says there shall be no remarriage? I mean it's just an interpretation without him actually saying it one way or another? And to quote Paul or anybody else to me would seem Christ's words are superior.
Jesus does allow for divorce in the case of sexual immorality, but He does not allow for remarriage. He states plainly numerous times that remarriage is adultery.
"Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her. And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.” (Mark 10:11-12)
"Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery." (Luke 16:18)
Earlier in Matthew 5, Jesus also does not give an exception to remarry. "But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery. And whoever marries her that is divorced commits adultery. " Notice Jesus is simply saying the man is not culpable for her adultery if he divorced her for sexual immorality. It is not a permission to remarry, only an exception to the culpability of the husband in this case. And furthermore, he adds, in the Majority Textual tradition, that whoever marries her commits adultery without qualifying it by saying, "whoever marries her commits adultery, unless she was divorced for adultery."
Jesus clearly states all reamrriage is adultery. The first marriage stands unto death.
@@redeemed.and.restored Then he says to look at a woman with lust is adultery...so...He is definitely talking about standards...but did He command never to divorce..or is He talking about standards.
Yeah but we all know due to sin.. that people can marry the wrong person. Unless you believe that God does not have a will for your life and someone is unable to go outside of God's will. So if God wills you to marry a particular person but it didn't happen and they end up marrying someone that wasn't God's will.. then their marriage is not in God's blessing in my opinion. Unless you think everything that everyone does is in the will of God. Secondly, Jesus Christ does say that you can get a divorce because of sexual immorality and that's indisputable and I can understand how us as Catholics can say that you cannot get a divorce because of sexual immorality.. even in your own convictions of morality you would understand that someone who's having sexual relations with another person during your marriage has broken that contract and commitment. God has a will for you and your life and has chosen the person you should marry from the beginning of your life and perhaps before. When you work outside of the will of God for your life things don't work right.
Hi Joe. We addressed some of these things above in reply to some of your comments. But we will state briefly here that we agree one can divorce for sexual immorality, but that it is God's will to remain single or be reconciled. In one sense we all marry the wrong person. Everyone will find that their partner is a sinner, and incompatible with you in some way. But God has shown us that the way to overcome this is by obeying His will and loving their partner the way Christ has loved us, which means forgiving sins, being patient, and kind, and longsuffering. The frictions in marriage are ways that God sanctifies us and makes us more like Himself.
Silly rant of Catholics