Sir ki badi respect karta hu but Jo ans sir ne diya hopefully that was not sufficient and was not as good ! Base same hone par power equal ho jati hai agar difference of the power is zero Aur base same hone par powers ko equal nahi rakh skte hain is the difference is not zero Example 1 ki power 5 = 1 ki power 5 mai difference of 5-5=0 hence in this case we consider 5=5 But if you take 1 ki power 5 = 1ki power 3 in this case clearly you can see the difference between the power is not zero hence you can't say 5=3 I hope you understand it well now thank you ❤
It's been 3 yrs since I left physics ( as a subject 😆 ) , still I watch these videos and try to connect where I left that fascinating universe. Thank you sir ❤️
A teacher is considered an excellent teacher when they are able to explain such topics with utmost simplicity and don't just go with the "it is like this because it just is" excuse. Of course it goes without saying that this is one of the factors why HC Verma Sir is one of the most brilliant teachers of India.
Love these explanations on fundametals, sometimes questions on some basic concept becomes more tricky & teasing than, questions involving tough calculation....Great Sir, Thankyou 🙏
Sir why don't you start your own series of class 11th and 12th physics for JEE and NEET in which you will be clarifying all the concepts which even teachers fails to teach. It would be helpful for all those students who can't afford to get themselves enrolled in top coaching institutes and also for those who are struggling to understand the concept in the coaching because of the low level explanation given by teachers. Please look at gravity of this matter. A humble request to you from the bottom of my heart.
I don't think it is possible for sir to teach all jee/neet physics at this age . Also I think he does not teaches with any bounding on syllabus , he just want every student to understand core physics , irrelevance of any specific syllabus of any competetive exam..
If you see his book concepts of physics, it isn't made for JEE and NEET. It was just for making everyone understand physics. We aspirants solve it because of its conceptual questions
@@xijinping3543 this more than anything else forget about jee for a while, and just enjoy what he teaches. (btw I have cleared jee studying in a tier 1 institute)
Hats off sir! I am speechless, can't express in words that how big gentleman you are for giving the right and accurate education needed to this generation who is rotting their brains on shitty reels. God bless you sir!
Thank you Prof. Verma 🙏 If you don't mind, I'll try to follow your style of teaching someday slowly removing the clouds to bring the clarity of established principles in maths and physics. You are simply superb SIR!
मेरे पास 7-8 दिनों से इस video का suggestion आ रहा था, लेकिन मैं यह सोचकर नहीं देख रहा था कि आप english में बताएँगे। हिंदी में बताने के लिए धन्यवाद सर🙏
Bahut hi gajab aur jis tarah se aap ne cupboard k door par samjhaya hai that's incredible I salute you for this. Maine apke bahut sare video nhi dekhe ab lag raha hai galti ki hai past me
Verma sahab, aapne bahut achha explain kiya exponential rule ko jis mein aapke anusaar base ki value agar 1 ke alaawa aur koi bhi ho toh bhi ye equation satisfy ho jaayegi. Sorry sir, aisa nahin hai. Agar base -1 bhi ho, tab bhi ye equation satisfy nahin ho paayegi. Example 👇 (-1)^2 = (-1)^4 => 2 = 4 (jo ki ganit ke niyaanusaar sahi nahin hai!!). Yaani ke base -1 bhi nahin ho sakta!!!! Isi tarah agar aap ghaur karen, toh base ki power 0, 1 aur --1 ye teeno nahin ho sakti, warna equation satisfy nahin ho paayegi.
Thank God (also TH-cam algorithm), Mujhe solution mil gaya, mera dost na khud pata tha aur mujhe kafi dino se pareshan kar raha na tha ab uske muh pe solution dunga 🤣🤣... Also Thanks for HC Verma sir...🙏🙏
The thing is we can make jokes about them, but the effort and the happy enthusiasm he is expressing, are missing in our generation, its if we are not interested, just respect his concern!
Hello Sir, Good to see you again. Myself Javed Ansari, I am a Maths Professor and teach 11th, 12th Maths include JEE MAINS & Advance. I would like to enhance the statement. "Since bases are the same their exponents would be equal, if the bases are not 1, -1, zero and infinity."
Bilkul ekdum sahi hai 💯 , always take logarithm once when there is a exponent question. I also think like that method otherwise you can also try using Lambert W function.
The one-one property of exponential function requires the base to be>1. Since when base is 1, the exponential function will map each point in its domain to 1.
वाह sir आपने क्या concept बता दिये। Sir aap maths ka kuchh course Ya concept wala वीडियो TH-cam par ya koi website par start karte......... . Class zero to higher tak.🙏🙏🙏🙏
Beautiful explination indeed our lord is one and Only....lord deserves all praises and only to b worshiped alone ......there is no god but One and only One......who is the sole creator and rest is creation. .....
there is a simple answer to this, correlation does not mean causation, in your case, the reason why (-1) to the 2nd power and 4th power are equal is because they both equal -1, not because 2 equals 4, but if you want to go indepth for the proof (which is not so simple) , you have to go to a complex world since the logarithm of a negative number is not defined in the real world, see this -1 on the complex plane is at an angle of 180 degrees or PI from the starting plane, while you can use that angle in the euler's formula, you have to notice that for these specific numbers -1, 1, i and -i, you can go around 360 degrees or 2PI around the plane and end up at the same point, so for (-1)^2 to (-1)^4 it is just off by an angle of 2nPI where n is an integer, theyre the same number but they have "different" angles for 0, the log function is undefined as no number to a power can equal 0 other than 0, you can try to tackle this in the form of limits, since the limit as x-->0+ of Ln(x) is --infinity, you can look at it as 0^2 = 0^4 take the natural log on both sides 2 Ln(0) = 4 Ln(0) using ln(0) as -infinity, 2 * -infinity = 4 * -infinity, hence -infinity = -infinity, so it is true and not because 2 = 4 if you think about it, its like solving an equation, lets say 4x = 2x, then you move like terms to one side and get 4x - 2x = 0, factor out an x x(4-2) = 0, here we cant just say 4-2=0 as that just doesnt make sense, so only other possibility is that x = 0 hope this helps :)
Cbse board ka student log 10 ; 11 me padhta hai vo bhi chemistry me .....is bacche ko explanation shayad hi samjh aaye .....fir bhi nice explanation sir aapke video me kuch to Naya milta hi hai ... 🙏🙏🙏🙏
Respected Sir, I'm a 12th class student from Nadia, West Bengal. After taking lessons from this video, I became very excited to know why *0! =1* and it's physical significance and it's role in our nature. Sir , kindly explain this.
A factorial of a number "n" is defined as n!=n×(n-1)×(n-2)...×2×1 By this definition we can say that n!=n×(n-1)! Therefore (n-1)!=n!/n Putting n=1 we get, (1-1)!=1!/1 Therefore 0!=1 Hence proved
Respected Sir My name is Anukalp and study in class 10. I have a doubt in physics in optics. We know that when a monochromatic light passes through prism it does not disperse and simply got deviated. But when a monochromatic green light (let assume the light source be laser beam) when passes through prism you will be astonished to see that inside the prism the green light will be (refracted) reddish-orange in colour and the emergent ray will be as usual green. Sir you can check also yourself by doing the experiment. Sir, my question is that why the monochromatic green light is visible reddish orange in colour. I will be very pleased to get the answer from you
Since you are in 10th right now, the explanation might be a bit complex for you, but I shall try to keep it as simple as possible. When you pass light through prism, a part of it gets *REFRACTED* and the other gets *REFLECTED* It means some energy of the photons(small packets of light energy;massless particles) gets radiated out while some remains in the prism. Energy is related to Frequency of light as E=hf [h is a constant] =>E=(hc)/W [c is speed of light and W is the wavelength] f=c/W from the relation velocity=frequency×wavelength From E=(hc)/W When E decreases, Wavelength of light increases in same proportion, and since wavelength of light decreases it changes its color. Hope it helps
You need to understand that whenever a ray of light refracts, it's wavelength increases. To understand the reason you also need to know that frequency of a ray of light only and only depends on its source and it doesn't change throughout its journey, and you also need to know that speed of light decreases when it enters a medium. Therefore by the formula V=fλ if the speed of light changes in entering another medium then lambda(i.e. wavelength) should also change and your frequency remains constant through this process. Therefore, before refraction f1 = V1/λ1, After refraction f2= V2/λ2. Since f1=f2 therefore, V1/λ1=V2/λ2, therefore, V2 x λ1 -----------= λ2 V1
With your written book named "the concept of physics" there are many memories are attached with me I have no that much capacity to bring out I bring it from a senior of mine after that I started my journey of physics from there I started to make follow your books directly which students usually prefer after make clear their concepts of theory for practice problems There was many numbers of sleepless night with that book whenever I read it I was found myself on a other world of physics Even I ignored many time other subjects like chemistry when I being much attached to physics But thing is that many of my friends make laugh at me just because all over the night I stay outside the room that which was provided on my hostel just because nobody could make disturb in between while I study or practice problem I was think over either the sleepless night will make pay me or not But at last it make me pay for that sleepless night at 1st attempt I clear jeemain now I am student of btech 1st year of chemical engineering If that day I will not choose my own road then their should be no a single change I could found between their and my life They all are laughing at me because I was different from them But I just make smile on their because they all are same
He's good, except that he couldn't paint the entire picture. Base = 1 is just one of the two exceptions to this rule. The other being Base = 0 0^1=0^2 but 1 is not equal to 2.
Hlw HCV sir. I'm a class 9th student,I want to ask a question ,it is running my mind all day. Q . Can light be independent of heat(any kind of heat) ?? Help me to know this , sir Huge respect to you nd your contribution!😊
LIGHT IS A FORM OF ENERGY WHICH GIVES US THE SENSATION OF SIGHT. Its a form of energy ,likewise heat is also a form of energy . wherever there is a dissipation of energy ,it is compulsory heat generation will be there, suppose you run for 1km, you will find yourself sweating due to heat generated in your body. light is too ,has the useful energy + unavailable energy conversion. THE UNAVAILABLE ENERGY IS THE HEAT ENERGY IN CASE OF BULB. (H=i SQUARE RT ) IN CASE OF WATER HEATER ,THE USEFUL ENERGY IS HEAT ENERGY. IF YOU SEE EM WAVES (LIGHT IS ALSO AN EM WAVE) , THERE IS DISSIPATION OF HEAT ENERGY IN THE FORM OF RADIATION. SO LIGHT,HEAT,SOUND,CHEMICAL OR ANY FORM OF ENERGY IS INTERELATED, REMEMBER IT CAN NEITHER BE CREATED NOR DESTROYED ONLY IT CHANGES ITS FORM. IN NUCLEAR REACTIONS TOO THERE IS SPLITTING OF URANIUM ATOM WHICH GENERATE HEAT ,THAT IS USED TO PRODUCE STEAM WHICH RUNS THE TURBINE TO GENERATE ELECRICITY. OR IF YOU BOMBARD ANY RAYS THERE WILL BE HEAT GENERATION. SO MY DEAR FREIND ,THERE IS EXCHANGE OF ENERGY EVERYWHERE, THE BIG EXAMPLE IS SUN ( NUCLEAR REACTION HAPPENS THERE) RADIATING SOLAR FLARES AND EM WAVES WHICH GETS TRAPEED AT NORTH AND SOUTH POLES TO FORM BEAUTIFUL AURORA . HOPE YOU UNDERSTAND THIS EXPLANATION, WELCOME.
Amazing explanation sir ! I have a question though (not related the topic of the video) when the JEE advance paper is set what sort of qualities are being searched in a student ? I always had this question sir .
Sir please answer this question🙏🏻 -What is the difference between total power and equivalent power with respect to an electric circuit (because both of them have different formular with respect to series/parallel combination of the circuit)?
Sir what will happen if the base is 0? Where will the contradiction arise if zero is the base in the following equation i.e. 0^2 = 0 0^3 = 0 Thus, 0^2=0^3 ---> 2 = 3 {Because of same bases}
Pranam Sir my question is that if other planets and celestial objects are moving around sun so why don't they mix with the sun because sir according to laws every heavy object attracts other objects which has smaller mass than himself and many teachers illustrates the moving of earth around sun in a net where sun is in the center and the object around it revolves and after some time it gets attracted to the object(sun) sir please clear my doubt every teacher rejected this question from starting and sir i have very much hope that you will definitely look up to this.
all planets and celestial bodies have constant velocities and they thus follow a stable orbit around the sun which is why they don't fall into sun, now unless mass of bodies or velocity of bodies change this path will not change however there are more factors in real life
Bro In Advanced Physics You wil learn a concept that is due to resultant force on them .. They Got A Velocity In tangential direction of sun and one component make the Earth revolve and other one balances the sun ☀️ Gravitational pull .. So it's not able to get pulled by sun but I think If a very heavy Force Will be On the Side of sun will be applied .. That You think will take place but It Can Happen Because If some large Body come near our earth so it will take earth toward it attract it very heavily so We will not able to so sun's side .. I hope it's clear you More I will be happy if sir gives a beautiful explanation on it ...
@Pratham Kalgutkar, what you've mentioned is not right. You've written that all planets and celestial bodies have constant velocities. They DON'T. At no point of time is their velocity constant. At every point of time, their speed and direction is changing when rotating around heavier bodies. Now, coming to the question of why doesn't Earth fall into the Sun, as demonstrated by the Earth-Sun model in a lab. The answer is this: It will, if there is dissipation of energy and sufficient time. These 2 conditions are met when that lab demonstration is done. Taking Sun at the centre of observation, there's no torque on Earth due to the force applied due to Sun's gravity(as gravity is a central force), therefore conservation of angular momentum can be taken into consideration. Therefore the Earth continues to revolve around the Sun. But there are other planets in Solar system and there's whole milky way galaxy.. they do exert force in various directions on Earth and Sun. It is a possibility that one day, very very far in the future, Earth could spiral in the Sun, or maybe not. Maybe it's orbit will change like the moon's orbit is changing. Earth's moon's orbit is changing every moment. There was a time in very distant past that moon was very close to Earth. And it WILL happen that moon will forever be gone from Earth's orbit never to be seen anymore.
Best explanation for this would be basically 5^² means 5 multiplied twice but if we see in a way 5^¹ should mean 5 multiplied once but multiplied to whom? Simple answer is 1. So 5^³ is 5 multiplied thrice to 1. So 5^0 means 5 not multiplied at all to 1. Hence 5^0 means 1. Like wise 1^0 means one not multiplied to 1 so leaving us with just a 1
Legends are noticing he is doing the question on almirah door 😂
🤣
I was finding this comment finally done 😅 dhund liya
🤣
Sahi pakde ho
😹😹😹😹😹😹😹
What a mind-blowing concept...
We studied this from younger classes but couldn't think about this....
Genius sir 👍🔥🔥
Genius is the kid who thought about that question
@@anshumansingh7726 true
@@anshumansingh7726 I simply dealt the question by taking log both sides and mind my words this is a ridiculous doubt for a jee advanced aspirant.
Sir ki badi respect karta hu but Jo ans sir ne diya hopefully that was not sufficient and was not as good !
Base same hone par power equal ho jati hai agar difference of the power is zero
Aur base same hone par powers ko equal nahi rakh skte hain is the difference is not zero
Example 1 ki power 5 = 1 ki power 5 mai difference of 5-5=0 hence in this case we consider 5=5
But if you take 1 ki power 5 = 1ki power 3 in this case clearly you can see the difference between the power is not zero hence you can't say 5=3
I hope you understand it well now thank you ❤
HC Verma sir always comes up with excellent explanations for problems. JEE ki prep nikali hai sir ki kitaab padhke ❣
konse IIT se and which batch sir
@@riteshbudania1129 iit-b cse lmao
@@truth1549 What is lmao bro ??
@@immaxmad5054 lmao
@@immaxmad5054 lmao
It's been 3 yrs since I left physics ( as a subject 😆 ) , still I watch these videos and try to connect where I left that fascinating universe.
Thank you sir ❤️
IITian?
@@SaketIsLIVE no bro...mei engineering mei nhi hu
@@sataniksil ok
@@sataniksil kya kr rhe ho ? Science field se ho ?
@@AnilSharma-vo8ok integrated MSc. Agriculture Rural and Tribal Development
Thank you Dear HC Verma Sir, you made our childhood proud. Your concepts of HC Verma book Part 1 & 2 were foundations of our thoughts.
Beta, batao tumhara JEE me kya rank he
@@nithinsabu4808 😂😂
@@nithinsabu4808 AIR 101
@@GoToMan nice bro.
I am 4016.
@@nithinsabu4808 Haha, I was speculating about his rank tho. Never wrote JEE, went for Stanford straight away.
Savage reply to all those who thinks that this is a question for checking IQ 😂😂😂😂
HCV SIR IS ❤
CHARANSPARSH HCV SIR 🙏🏻🙏🏻🙏🏻
Bro Chavanprash nahi charanprash
@@krishnamahawar319 bhai woh चरणस्पर्श bol raha hai
@@krishnamahawar319 apni aakho me to nhi dal lia chaman prash🤣🤣🤣
Gajab log hai yaar
@@dedicated2304 bhai chavanprash nahi charansparsh
His simplicity is amazing. Best physics teacher and guide HC VERMA sir
why you are learning science ? It is haram 😭😭🤣🤣🤣🤣
@@IndicHorseman khud ke joke pe hass Raha hai.
Study channel hai yeh. Aise comments kisi political channel or daal. Fir shayad kuch support mile. Lol
@@IndicHorsemanyour existence is haram
Praising you sir
No matter whatever the subject is
You have a desent answer for all questions
Big fan of your knowledge sir
Learning from you
Thank You Sir for clarifying this as I too was unaware of this until my Mathematics faculty at Allen taught me
FOM 😁
A teacher is considered an excellent teacher when they are able to explain such topics with utmost simplicity and don't just go with the "it is like this because it just is" excuse. Of course it goes without saying that this is one of the factors why HC Verma Sir is one of the most brilliant teachers of India.
Love these explanations on fundametals, sometimes questions on some basic concept becomes more tricky & teasing than, questions involving tough calculation....Great Sir, Thankyou 🙏
His name will be written in golden words in the history of PHYSICS🔥
Sir why don't you start your own series of class 11th and 12th physics for JEE and NEET in which you will be clarifying all the concepts which even teachers fails to teach. It would be helpful for all those students who can't afford to get themselves enrolled in top coaching institutes and also for those who are struggling to understand the concept in the coaching because of the low level explanation given by teachers.
Please look at gravity of this matter. A humble request to you from the bottom of my heart.
I don't think it is possible for sir to teach all jee/neet physics at this age . Also I think he does not teaches with any bounding on syllabus , he just want every student to understand core physics , irrelevance of any specific syllabus of any competetive exam..
Ye best h ✨
He doesn't like teaching for comeptitve papers, he likes teaching physics for interested
If you see his book concepts of physics, it isn't made for JEE and NEET. It was just for making everyone understand physics. We aspirants solve it because of its conceptual questions
@@xijinping3543 this more than anything else
forget about jee for a while, and just enjoy what he teaches.
(btw I have cleared jee studying in a tier 1 institute)
Hats off sir! I am speechless, can't express in words that how big gentleman you are for giving the right and accurate education needed to this generation who is rotting their brains on shitty reels. God bless you sir!
Thank you Prof. Verma 🙏 If you don't mind, I'll try to follow your style of teaching someday slowly removing the clouds to bring the clarity of established principles in maths and physics. You are simply superb SIR!
मेरे पास 7-8 दिनों से इस video का suggestion आ रहा था, लेकिन मैं यह सोचकर नहीं देख रहा था कि आप english में बताएँगे। हिंदी में बताने के लिए धन्यवाद सर🙏
I have no words for such an educator 💐💐💓💓💐💐☪️☪️☪️☪️☪️
Your style of teaching is heart touching sir 🙏🙏🙏
Got this formula in 9th standard but no teacher had ever explained to me like you did.
Thanks for the answer!!
Really enlightened!
Maza aagaya sachme!
Bahut hi gajab aur jis tarah se aap ne cupboard k door par samjhaya hai that's incredible I salute you for this. Maine apke bahut sare video nhi dekhe ab lag raha hai galti ki hai past me
This is what dedication looks like ❤
Thank you Sir 🇮🇳🕉️
Verma sahab, aapne bahut achha explain kiya exponential rule ko jis mein aapke anusaar base ki value agar 1 ke alaawa aur koi bhi ho toh bhi ye equation satisfy ho jaayegi. Sorry sir, aisa nahin hai. Agar base -1 bhi ho, tab bhi ye equation satisfy nahin ho paayegi. Example 👇
(-1)^2 = (-1)^4
=> 2 = 4 (jo ki ganit ke niyaanusaar sahi nahin hai!!). Yaani ke base -1 bhi nahin ho sakta!!!! Isi tarah agar aap ghaur karen, toh base ki power 0, 1 aur --1 ye teeno nahin ho sakti, warna equation satisfy nahin ho paayegi.
Aaj class me mai genius banane ja raha hu🤫🤫🤫😅
EDIT;:
Maa me famous ho gaya maa😉
😂😂😂😂😂
Me too
Aapki video dekh ke ek hi cheez nikalti hai zebaan se . Woww amagazine . Maaza aajata hai sir kyaa pyaare pyaare concept laate ho
Wonderful explanation sir....must appreciate the kid who came out with such a doubt 👍
Thank God (also TH-cam algorithm), Mujhe solution mil gaya, mera dost na khud pata tha aur mujhe kafi dino se pareshan kar raha na tha ab uske muh pe solution dunga 🤣🤣...
Also Thanks for HC Verma sir...🙏🙏
True LEGEND…Doesn’t need even board to teach 🙏🙏
The thing is we can make jokes about them, but the effort and the happy enthusiasm he is expressing, are missing in our generation, its if we are not interested, just respect his concern!
Today i learn new concept on behalf of your knowledge.
Sir ji board pe nhi darwaaje par hi explain kar dete hai ye hota hai guru prem 😍😍
I feel blessed that I am able to learn from such a person
Others Just Tell About the rule is not applicable for base 1 but sir Explanation with Log is Amazing and Clear Thank You Sir
Hello Sir,
Good to see you again.
Myself Javed Ansari, I am a Maths Professor and teach 11th, 12th Maths include JEE MAINS & Advance.
I would like to enhance the statement.
"Since bases are the same their exponents would be equal, if the bases are not 1, -1, zero and infinity."
Bilkul ekdum sahi hai 💯 , always take logarithm once when there is a exponent question. I also think like that method otherwise you can also try using Lambert W function.
Thanks sir for giving us a new information about mathematics 👌👌
Sir what a mind blowing explanation for the mind blowing question.
I never thought this q.
The fact that the legend is teaching on a wardrobe notice that handle..
Nirmal baba ke charno mey koti koti pranam
Sir you are just God for us students... I'm too from kanpur and hope for getting into iit and meet you
Legends do not come for solve his/her doubt they come for see his teaching style😅😅😅😅😅😅😅😅😅😅
Power of Bihari ठेकुआ ( पकवान) sir
😅😅
Waah Sir ji waah 👌 kitne vistaar se iss prashn ka uttar diya aapne 🙏
Amazing Sir ❤️❤️
My respect to you increases day by day 🙏🙏
excellent explanation sir. Thankyou.
The one-one property of exponential function requires the base to be>1. Since when base is 1, the exponential function will map each point in its domain to 1.
not >1 but simply "not equal to" 1, since it can be a negative value as well.
@@aditri-zz5se yup
Thank you sir... the question is too interesting and your explanation is too beautiful.... Pranam..🙇♀️
Brilliant que and mind-blowing answer
His smiling face is so attractive to the listener... 😅😊😊😊..
Great Sir. ❤❤
वाह sir आपने क्या concept बता दिये।
Sir aap maths ka kuchh course
Ya concept wala वीडियो TH-cam par ya koi website par start karte......... .
Class zero to higher tak.🙏🙏🙏🙏
kitne acche se samjaya he sir , thankyou so much ❤❤🤯🤯🙏🙏
This kind of innovative things only hc Verma sir can think 😅.
sir koi sawaal nai banta aapke kitab ka kuch samajh nahi aata phir bhi aap great ho.. pranam
Sir you are greatest teacher of physics, u will be ideal for me forever
بہترین۔
Salute to you sir.
Can’t believe it was so simple. Thankyou sir!
Excellent explanation sir
Thanku😊
This is how a student is supposed to be taught by his/her teacher.
But we all know how our teacher teach us in schools.
Genius sir after long time I see this type of teaching
Sir, you are the inspirations for many like us.
Beautiful explination indeed our lord is one and Only....lord deserves all praises and only to b worshiped alone ......there is no god but One and only One......who is the sole creator and rest is creation. .....
(-1)²=(-1)⁴, so, 2=4
0³=0⁸, so, 3=8
For bases -1 and 0, we also need to take care.
yes base needs to be greater than 0 and never be 1 for this property to be true
Yes Sir, For definition of exponential function and it's inverse logarithmic function base should be positive and not equal to 1.
@Mr. IITian
Yes, that's the limitation Sir.
Explanation here considers only positive bases.
We should understand that exponential functions are defined and monotonic on real set only when bases are positive and not equal to 1.
there is a simple answer to this, correlation does not mean causation, in your case, the reason why (-1) to the 2nd power and 4th power are equal is because they both equal -1, not because 2 equals 4, but if you want to go indepth for the proof (which is not so simple) , you have to go to a complex world since the logarithm of a negative number is not defined in the real world, see this
-1 on the complex plane is at an angle of 180 degrees or PI from the starting plane, while you can use that angle in the euler's formula, you have to notice that for these specific numbers -1, 1, i and -i, you can go around 360 degrees or 2PI around the plane and end up at the same point, so for (-1)^2 to (-1)^4 it is just off by an angle of 2nPI where n is an integer, theyre the same number but they have "different" angles
for 0, the log function is undefined as no number to a power can equal 0 other than 0, you can try to tackle this in the form of limits, since the limit as x-->0+ of Ln(x) is --infinity, you can look at it as
0^2 = 0^4
take the natural log on both sides
2 Ln(0) = 4 Ln(0)
using ln(0) as -infinity,
2 * -infinity = 4 * -infinity, hence
-infinity = -infinity, so it is true and not because 2 = 4
if you think about it, its like solving an equation,
lets say 4x = 2x, then you move like terms to one side and get
4x - 2x = 0, factor out an x
x(4-2) = 0, here we cant just say 4-2=0 as that just doesnt make sense, so only other possibility is that x = 0
hope this helps :)
Extraordinary explanation sir ❤❤❤
Sir you are a legend!💗😊
Cbse board ka student log 10 ; 11 me padhta hai vo bhi chemistry me .....is bacche ko explanation shayad hi samjh aaye .....fir bhi nice explanation sir aapke video me kuch to Naya milta hi hai ... 🙏🙏🙏🙏
One of the Great teacher ❤️❤️❤️
Have been doing your book questions, great book 👍
Respected Sir,
I'm a 12th class student from Nadia, West Bengal. After taking lessons from this video, I became very excited to know why *0! =1* and it's physical significance and it's role in our nature. Sir , kindly explain this.
A factorial of a number "n" is defined as
n!=n×(n-1)×(n-2)...×2×1
By this definition we can say that
n!=n×(n-1)!
Therefore
(n-1)!=n!/n
Putting n=1 we get,
(1-1)!=1!/1
Therefore
0!=1
Hence proved
th-cam.com/video/Tib9uLg_-jw/w-d-xo.html
Here I find a video related to your question
One of the reason why Indian stem students are top notch
Respected Sir
My name is Anukalp and study in class 10. I have a doubt in physics in optics. We know that when a monochromatic light passes through prism it does not disperse and simply got deviated. But when a monochromatic green light (let assume the light source be laser beam) when passes through prism you will be astonished to see that inside the prism the green light will be (refracted) reddish-orange in colour and the emergent ray will be as usual green. Sir you can check also yourself by doing the experiment.
Sir, my question is that why the monochromatic green light is visible reddish orange in colour.
I will be very pleased to get the answer from you
Since you are in 10th right now, the explanation might be a bit complex for you, but I shall try to keep it as simple as possible.
When you pass light through prism, a part of it gets *REFRACTED* and the other gets *REFLECTED*
It means some energy of the photons(small packets of light energy;massless particles) gets radiated out while some remains in the prism.
Energy is related to Frequency of light as
E=hf [h is a constant]
=>E=(hc)/W [c is speed of light and W is the wavelength]
f=c/W from the relation velocity=frequency×wavelength
From E=(hc)/W
When E decreases, Wavelength of light increases in same proportion, and since wavelength of light decreases it changes its color.
Hope it helps
You need to understand that whenever a ray of light refracts, it's wavelength increases. To understand the reason you also need to know that frequency of a ray of light only and only depends on its source and it doesn't change throughout its journey, and you also need to know that speed of light decreases when it enters a medium. Therefore by the formula V=fλ if the speed of light changes in entering another medium then lambda(i.e. wavelength) should also change and your frequency remains constant through this process. Therefore, before refraction f1 = V1/λ1,
After refraction f2= V2/λ2.
Since f1=f2 therefore,
V1/λ1=V2/λ2, therefore,
V2 x λ1
-----------= λ2
V1
10 students should learn first.. how can we contradict on this topic... Hope u get it. Now learn as it is.
Sir ko koti koti pradam.. proud to be a physics teacher..
With your written book named "the concept of physics" there are many memories are attached with me I have no that much capacity to bring out I bring it from a senior of mine after that I started my journey of physics from there I started to make follow your books directly which students usually prefer after make clear their concepts of theory for practice problems
There was many numbers of sleepless night with that book whenever I read it I was found myself on a other world of physics
Even I ignored many time other subjects like chemistry when I being much attached to physics
But thing is that many of my friends make laugh at me just because all over the night I stay outside the room that which was provided on my hostel just because nobody could make disturb in between while I study or practice problem
I was think over either the sleepless night will make pay me or not
But at last it make me pay for that sleepless night at 1st attempt I clear jeemain now I am student of btech 1st year of chemical engineering
If that day I will not choose my own road then their should be no a single change I could found between their and my life
They all are laughing at me because I was different from them
But I just make smile on their because they all are same
Bahut sahi budhe a real indian which prove you
Sir just proved that Math is not just a subject, it's art.
He's good, except that he couldn't paint the entire picture.
Base = 1 is just one of the two exceptions to this rule.
The other being Base = 0
0^1=0^2 but 1 is not equal to 2.
@@raghavkapoor5663 "Since bases are the same their exponents would be equal, if the bases are not 1, -1, zero and infinity."
Woooh sir , what an excellent explanation
Mind is just blown
Hlw HCV sir.
I'm a class 9th student,I want to ask a question ,it is running my mind all day.
Q . Can light be independent of heat(any kind of heat) ??
Help me to know this , sir
Huge respect to you nd your contribution!😊
LIGHT IS A FORM OF ENERGY WHICH GIVES US THE SENSATION OF SIGHT. Its a form of energy ,likewise heat is also a form of energy . wherever there is a dissipation of energy ,it is compulsory heat generation will be there, suppose you run for 1km, you will find yourself sweating due to heat generated in your body. light is too ,has the useful energy + unavailable energy conversion. THE UNAVAILABLE ENERGY IS THE HEAT ENERGY IN CASE OF BULB.
(H=i SQUARE RT ) IN CASE OF WATER HEATER ,THE USEFUL ENERGY IS HEAT ENERGY.
IF YOU SEE EM WAVES (LIGHT IS ALSO AN EM WAVE) , THERE IS DISSIPATION OF HEAT ENERGY IN THE FORM OF RADIATION.
SO LIGHT,HEAT,SOUND,CHEMICAL OR ANY FORM OF ENERGY IS INTERELATED, REMEMBER IT CAN NEITHER BE CREATED NOR DESTROYED ONLY IT CHANGES ITS FORM.
IN NUCLEAR REACTIONS TOO THERE IS SPLITTING OF URANIUM ATOM WHICH GENERATE HEAT ,THAT IS USED TO PRODUCE STEAM WHICH RUNS THE TURBINE TO GENERATE ELECRICITY.
OR IF YOU BOMBARD ANY RAYS THERE WILL BE HEAT GENERATION.
SO MY DEAR FREIND ,THERE IS EXCHANGE OF ENERGY EVERYWHERE, THE BIG EXAMPLE IS SUN ( NUCLEAR REACTION HAPPENS THERE) RADIATING SOLAR FLARES AND EM WAVES WHICH GETS TRAPEED AT NORTH AND SOUTH POLES TO FORM BEAUTIFUL AURORA . HOPE YOU UNDERSTAND THIS EXPLANATION, WELCOME.
@@ankushupman1505 awesome!
@@ankushupman1505 man u r a genius🔥
Thanks bro..now i got I ☺️!
@@ankushupman1505 hey , i have a another question. Plzz help me to get answer of this: Weigh of a dry cell decrease when it get dead ?
Well explained guru jee..a lots of love and respect from bihar😊
Amazing explanation sir ! I have a question though (not related the topic of the video) when the JEE advance paper is set what sort of qualities are being searched in a student ? I always had this question sir .
Yes sir..namskar..
Beauty of 1..
Sir please answer this question🙏🏻 -What is the difference between total power and equivalent power with respect to an electric circuit (because both of them have different formular with respect to series/parallel combination of the circuit)?
Great sir very very great guru
HC Verma sir is real guru of physics
Sir you are a legend.
श्रीमान जी आपने बहुत अच्छा समझाया
Ham soche 2023 mai Albert Einstein kaha se aa gaya 😂😂
Ashman se
1/infinity=0 then 1=infinity*0 =0
But 1not equal to 0
Sir please solve this problem
0•infinity is indeterminate form
This is not equal to zero
Kya baat hai sir.. log ka explanation bahut zaruri tha. Thanks a lot
Albert Einstein abhi bhi jinda hai kya 😂
Hee prabhujiii hmaare professors aatmagyaani se km nhi haii hee naathh thanku prabhuji thankuuu
Sir what will happen if the base is 0?
Where will the contradiction arise if zero is the base in the following equation i.e.
0^2 = 0
0^3 = 0
Thus,
0^2=0^3
---> 2 = 3 {Because of same bases}
log 0 is undefined so base cannot be 0, the base always have to be greater than 0 and base cannot be 1
@@prathamkalgutkar7538 Oh, I get it now
Thanks :)
Perfect explanation to get rid of childhood ambiguity by sir🙏
Pranam Sir
my question is that if other planets and celestial objects are moving around sun so why don't they mix with the sun because sir according to laws every heavy object attracts other objects which has smaller mass than himself and many teachers illustrates the moving of earth around sun in a net where sun is in the center and the object around it revolves and after some time it gets attracted to the object(sun) sir please clear my doubt every teacher rejected this question from starting and sir i have very much hope that you will definitely look up to this.
all planets and celestial bodies have constant velocities and they thus follow a stable orbit around the sun which is why they don't fall into sun, now unless mass of bodies or velocity of bodies change this path will not change however there are more factors in real life
@Pratham Kalgutkar You can also visualize this using the potential energy graph of earth wrt sun.
Bro In Advanced Physics You wil learn a concept that is due to resultant force on them .. They Got A Velocity In tangential direction of sun and one component make the Earth revolve and other one balances the sun ☀️ Gravitational pull .. So it's not able to get pulled by sun but I think If a very heavy Force Will be On the Side of sun will be applied .. That You think will take place but It Can Happen Because If some large Body come near our earth so it will take earth toward it attract it very heavily so We will not able to so sun's side .. I hope it's clear you More I will be happy if sir gives a beautiful explanation on it ...
@Pratham Kalgutkar, what you've mentioned is not right. You've written that all planets and celestial bodies have constant velocities. They DON'T. At no point of time is their velocity constant. At every point of time, their speed and direction is changing when rotating around heavier bodies.
Now, coming to the question of why doesn't Earth fall into the Sun, as demonstrated by the Earth-Sun model in a lab. The answer is this: It will, if there is dissipation of energy and sufficient time. These 2 conditions are met when that lab demonstration is done. Taking Sun at the centre of observation, there's no torque on Earth due to the force applied due to Sun's gravity(as gravity is a central force), therefore conservation of angular momentum can be taken into consideration. Therefore the Earth continues to revolve around the Sun. But there are other planets in Solar system and there's whole milky way galaxy.. they do exert force in various directions on Earth and Sun. It is a possibility that one day, very very far in the future, Earth could spiral in the Sun, or maybe not. Maybe it's orbit will change like the moon's orbit is changing. Earth's moon's orbit is changing every moment. There was a time in very distant past that moon was very close to Earth. And it WILL happen that moon will forever be gone from Earth's orbit never to be seen anymore.
Your smile at the end priceless 😊😊
Wait is he teaching in cupboard? Huge respect 🙏
Yes.....He is writing on that, Great Respect to him🙏
A simple amazing explanation sir ...
*Such type of question always comes from BIHAR* 🤣🤣
This question was also in my mind but I am not from Bihar 😒
Such type of comments always comes from stupid people.
@@Sakib35674 but your mindset is from bihar🤣🤣
The solver is also from bihar 👽
Ya that's good to have such questions because It's Required more in depth basic knowledge which we forget after the classes of 5-6
Samjhane ka tarika hi alag hai💥🔥
Love you sir, kya jawab hai pure rules theorem ke sath
Bahut ache se samjhane ke liye aapka dhanyawaad.
Brilliant explanation by legendry personality 😘❤️
Best explanation for this would be basically 5^² means 5 multiplied twice but if we see in a way 5^¹ should mean 5 multiplied once but multiplied to whom? Simple answer is 1. So 5^³ is 5 multiplied thrice to 1. So 5^0 means 5 not multiplied at all to 1. Hence 5^0 means 1. Like wise 1^0 means one not multiplied to 1 so leaving us with just a 1
Cool! 💟
Sir Ka concept bahut hin interesting hota hii ...H.C. Verma book krke hm to faculty bn gye