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INSANE integral solved using Feynman's technique

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  • เผยแพร่เมื่อ 10 ก.พ. 2023
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ความคิดเห็น • 23

  • @thomasblackwell9507
    @thomasblackwell9507 ปีที่แล้ว +8

    Orange on black and it is not even Halloween! Even with all that trickery.

  • @daddy_myers
    @daddy_myers ปีที่แล้ว +8

    Maths 505 sounds like he's in a really good mood today, and that makes me happy. :)
    Even though I watched this video on qn's channel, I'll watch the whole thing again, in the hopes that the algorithm gods bless Maths 505.
    So yeah, devious integral as always, bro. Keep it up. 💪😎👌

  • @manstuckinabox3679
    @manstuckinabox3679 ปีที่แล้ว +4

    Watched it at Q's house, None the less, I feel the combination of both feynmann and contour was the most elegant, but both of you made a tremendous job! keep it up.

  • @Decrupt
    @Decrupt ปีที่แล้ว +2

    love the content, love the integrals!

  • @phat5340
    @phat5340 ปีที่แล้ว +2

    For the seccond integral you can use Lobachevsky's formulae if you multiply and devide by x^2

    • @cringotopia8850
      @cringotopia8850 10 หลายเดือนก่อน

      Yes, I was going to mention that. I'm glad that somebody noticed

  • @Czeckie
    @Czeckie ปีที่แล้ว +3

    this is cool, I'm not happy with the argument at 13:13 though. The idea is correct, but it's argued weirdly I think. The integral doesn't immediately say we have a limit of I. But it says that limsup=-pi/2, in other words it doesn't blow up to infinity. So c2=0 (and now we can conclude that I has a limit as a bonus)

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  ปีที่แล้ว +3

      That's a nice argument as well.
      However, I invoked Dirichlet's convergence theorem to provide a basis of convergence. The rest followed due to the cosine term which ensured convergence didn't break down over the t-domain.

  • @rajendramisir3530
    @rajendramisir3530 ปีที่แล้ว +1

    Smart choice of tools used to implement a strategy that results in an elegant solution to this integral. You have an impressive toolbox of skills & techniques to solve these exotic integrals.

  • @barbietripping
    @barbietripping ปีที่แล้ว

    Clever and thorough.
    Thanks for your knowledge and time.

  • @zahari20
    @zahari20 ปีที่แล้ว +3

    To show c_2 = 0 say that the integral is BOUNDED, not just convergent.

  • @jieyuenlee1758
    @jieyuenlee1758 4 หลายเดือนก่อน

    10:18
    I'(0)=-pi/2
    I(0)=pi/2
    I(t)=Ae^-t +Be^t
    I'(t)=-Ae^-t +Be^t
    pi/2=A+B
    -pi/2=-A+B
    B=0,A=pi/2
    I(0)=pi/2 e^-t

  • @md2perpe
    @md2perpe ปีที่แล้ว +2

    I found another approach to this integral: using Fourier transform.
    The integral can be seen as the inverse Fourier transform, taken at 0, of sin(x)/x ⋅ sin(x)/x ⋅ 1/(1+x²) = ℱ{½ rect(x)} ⋅ ℱ{½ rect(x)} ⋅ ℱ{exp(-|x|)}. Because of the duality of product and convolution this leads to the result basically be ½ rect * ½ rect * exp(-|•|) taken at 0. The leftmost convolution gives a "witch hat" like function, which should then be convolved with with exp(-|•|). That we only need the value at 0 of this makes the calculation easier (we don't have to consider several cases).

    • @Sugarman96
      @Sugarman96 หลายเดือนก่อน

      Similarly, you could use Parseval's identity, with one function being the squared sinc and the other function being 1/(x^2+1), which turns into a similarly simple integral of e^-|x| times a triangle function, constants not withstanding.

  • @suvosengupta4657
    @suvosengupta4657 ปีที่แล้ว

    unreal .much appreciated my g

  • @jonasdaverio9369
    @jonasdaverio9369 ปีที่แล้ว +1

    For the first part, wouldn't it have been much quicker to write sin^2(x) = 1/2*(1-cos(2x)), which could bypass the integration by part?

  • @jasonlin5884
    @jasonlin5884 ปีที่แล้ว

    What is this writing board software in the video?
    It seems very helpful for a teacher.

  • @holyshit922
    @holyshit922 ปีที่แล้ว +2

    German guy called flammable math caculated this integral and if i remember correctly also with Leibniz rule for differentiation under integral sign
    It is good that you recorded it beause it is better to watch you than that German guy
    Integrand is even so we have int(2sin^2(x)/(x^2+1),x=0..infinity)
    Now define function (1-cos(2tx))/(x^2(x^2+1)) and calculate Laplace transform
    It will probably lead us to double integral

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  ปีที่แล้ว +2

      Yup...I didn't like his solution so I came up with this much better one

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 ปีที่แล้ว

      @@maths_505 I dont like his style of recording videos
      He used complex analysis and Laplace transform and Leibniz rule for integration under integral sign

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  ปีที่แล้ว +1

      @@holyshit922 oh I enjoyed his presentation but the solution put me off

  • @theimmux3034
    @theimmux3034 ปีที่แล้ว

    Wanna do the integral of the general quadratic √(ax^2 + bx +c)? It's more of an excercise in algebra, at least the way I did it.

  • @sadi_supercell2132
    @sadi_supercell2132 7 หลายเดือนก่อน

    This is too hard....