Can we take a moment to appreciate the format of the video ? No BS, no ads, no sponsors, no lengthy intro, straight and concise to the topic. I love it.
@@ColburnClassroom I fully support the sentiment of youtubers having to make money. It's just lately I've been hit with multiple shameless ads and sponsor plugs, which only worsens the situation that youtube now puts 2 ads before and after the video. It's just a nice change of pace to see this kind of channel.
@@binaryglitch64 This is one of those accounts. Also two (2) of the likes on my comment as Grant are from myself and are only there because that's what it took to keep my comment from being unjustly auto-deleted.
I, a German, think the word 'realm' is a good translation to 'Reich'. And yes, 'France' is called 'Frankreich', but the name was given before the republic started in France and just didn't get changed
I, a Swiss-German, think you're wrong or how would you explain the German word for Austria? Österreich was called that way long before it became an empire.
@@zoomerboomer1396 The "Reich" in "Österreich" may have originally referred to East Francia or the Duchy of Bavaria, which surely qualify as a realms and of which it was the easternmost region.
I‘m German and I learned alot from both the video and the comment section. Sometimes it needs a view from outside to understand one’s own history or state better. Thank you!
For a more deeper understanding: Reich originates from the same Words as the english "reach" and "rich" and thus has the same meaning, just that in Germany it does not stand alone anymore - it is to see in "reichweite" (reach). A "Reich" is the "reach" of a Ruler, defining the Region by his grasp of it over it. Empire would be "Imperium" and derives from the latin Impera - "to rule (over)". Iirc this comes from something as "rîch" or so that referred to "what one posesses" uniform for his/her Land, Animals, Objects and People. You even find it in "Rîgh" and such Words.
Not completely correct: If a person is very wealthy, or rich, he is "reich". Or to say, the noun "Reich" doesn't stand alone any more, but the adjective "reich".
I believe that the English word "reach" and "rich" are also related to Latin word "rex" (king), and thus (by extension) the word "reign", "regal", "royal", and "realm". All of these words came from the Proto-Indo-European word "*h₃rḗǵs" ("ruler", "king").
English used to have the word "rike/riche" which was related to the German word "Reich". This noun is not used anymore in Modern English. However, its adjective form "rich" (related to the German adjective "reich") is still widely used.
@@harrietriddle2197 Interestingly, the German word for "bishopric" is "Bistum" ("Bischof"+"-tum"), using the "-tum" suffix (related to the English suffix "-dom") instead of "*Bischofreich" (a more literal "translation").
The "ae" in "Caesar" was originally spoken the greek way, like "ai" in the German language. The word "Kaiser" is written like that in German, because it got written how "Caesar" was spoken. If you would pronounce the name Caesar how it was pronounced in ancient times, it would sound very close to how "Kaiser" is spoken in German language. And about "Reich" you can define it as an area that belongs to something or somebody. Even a private person could call his home his "Reich". A Königreich is the area that belongs to a King, Kaiserreich is the area that belongs to a Kaiser. "Deutsches Reich" would mean it is the area that belongs to the Germans, "Frankreich" means the area that belongs to the Franks and so on. It is correct in some way, not to call "Deutsches Reich" as German Empire, because we have the word "Imperium" with a specific meaning that differs from how we use "Reich". The Roman Empire, Imperium Romanum, Römisches Reich is a specific topic, that includes both concepts, the concept of "Reich" and the concept of "Imperium". "Imperium" has a slightly different meaning than "Reich". While a Reich "belongs to", an Imperium "is ruled by". So the Holy Roman Empire consisted of many "Reiche" (areas the belonged to somebody), but they all were somehow ruled by a "Kaiser". The German Empire was ruled by a Kaiser, but the Empire didn't belong to him. He was called a German Emperor (Deutscher Kaiser) and not Emperor of Germany (Kaiser von Deutschland). This might be confusing, because people from outside would have called him Emperor of Germany, but for the other Rulers of German territorries it was very important, because as German Emperor he was not above all other rulers. He was not one above all, but first of many. The later German Reich was different, because it wasn't ruled by an emperor. It simply was the area that belonged to the Germans.
@@michaels.5147 the Caesar explain ja massiv wrong! Im German ans Caesar ans Kaiser dont Sound nearly the same... I dont know je you unterstand but we speak it like: Zäsar-caesar And Kai-ser like the Name "Kay or Kai" So you see its complete different how it sounds
@@TheGamli Well then you misread what pakabe wrote. You are speaking of the German leanword Cäsar. He was writing about the Latin word Caesar and its pronunciation in Latin where he is totally correct that the (classical) Latin Caesar and the German Kaiser sound very similar. In Latin the c is more like a soft g mixed with a c and there is an a where German has an e, but the pronunciation shows clearly where the German Kaiser originated. Here is a good phonetic explanation : th-cam.com/video/IjcX3MVSdyA/w-d-xo.html
The "German Emperor" was never called German Emperor. Wilhelm I was called Emperor Wilhelm and Wilhelm II was called Emperor of Germany if you didn´t know that. The "German Emperor" was above all other but only in ranks, not in power.
A Kaiser outranking himself is very common, actually. Pretty much every royal would also carry lower titles - Elizabeth II for example is also Duchess of Normandy, Lancaster, etc. The Kaiser of the HRE was almost always also Archduke of Austria, King of Germany, and so on.
Sure, the HRE was very specific. In General there never was anybody getting elected if he wasn't a ruler of some territory. In fact the election of a Kaiser wasn't really an election of a Kaiser, because the former German tribes elected their King and they kept it as such in the HRE. That is one reason, because it was not allowed to any ruler inside the HRE to be a king - at least for a very long time. (This is one reason because the first Prussian king wasn't allowed to call himself King of Prussia, but King in Prussia). After the king was elected, he had the right to be crowned as kaiser by the pope. But there could be a long time between becoming king and becoming kaiser. And another point is, that the Kaiser himself didn't have imperial territories himself. He could make use of the Kaiserpfalzen (some kind of administrative areas), but his power always came from his own territories.
While it illustrates the point, the two examples used for Elizabeth II are both quite peculiar examples. Duke of Normandy (and that's specifically the male Duke, not Duchess) is a title specific to Guernsey and Jersey (not the UK), and is used by both to refer to her as head of state. Similarly on the Isle of Man, she is the Lord of Mann. In the UK itself, lesser titles cannot be held by the Monarch because they create the titles. Duke of Lancaster (again, male form) is basically a job title which provides financial income from the Duchy of Lancaster (think of it as sort-of private company with some government oversight, which earns money from land and developments). Prince Charles is a better example. His main title is Prince of Wales (since 1958), but he also holds the lesser titles Duke of Cornwall, Duke of Rothesay, Earl of Carrick, Baron of Renfrew, Lord of the Isles, Prince and Great Steward of Scotland (automatically received as heir apparent in 1952), Earl of Chester (created 1958), Duke of Edinburgh, Earl of Merioneth, and Baron Greenwich (inherited in 2021).
What an awesome video! No fooling around, no misconceptions, no subjective thoughts dressed as objective facts. Just plain old information about an interesting topic, given in an adequate pace, without getting boring. It's been a long time since I've seen a video this well done while not being commercially produced.
Trivia: In the German dub of _Star Wars IV - A New Hope_ Emperor Palpatine is referred to as "Kaiser"! Only since _The Empire Strikes Back_ has he been called "Imperator" instead. However, the Galactic Empire has always been dubbed as "das Imperium".
@@pauls1758 Meh, there were Kaisers until 1918, the 20th century, and if Germany had won ww1 or the Kaiser had still lost but not forced to abdicate, we could have very much seen the Kaisers stay in power for much later, maybe to this day, or undermined by a fascist or other radixal like in Italy
Just in case you're in for some more confusion 😉: Starting with the late 15th century, the _Holy Roman Empire_ was called the _Holy Roman Empire of the German Nation_ . According to Wikipedia ( en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holy_Roman_Empire ) _"The new title was adopted partly because the Empire lost most of its territories in Italy and Burgundy to the south and west by the late 15th century, but also to emphasize the new importance of the German Imperial Estates in ruling the Empire due to the Imperial Reform."_
@@dagmarvandoren9364 I was referring to 4:00 (and some other statements in the video) and I wasn't being entirely serious about it (as the emoji following the sentence shows).
and also maybe because it was no true Empire? HRE was a bunch of rival warring cunt german states that had no semblance to anything of an Empire, nor Holy, or Roman. It was bullshit.
Here in Sweden (another country with a Germanic language) it is very similar. We say "rike" and it generally applies the same as the German "reich". Our own country is "Kungariket (or Konungariket, Konung and Kung are synonyms for King in Swedish) Sverige" and just like how in german France is Frankreich and Austria is Österreich, in Swedish they are Frankrike and Österrike. Which also is ironic since both of those countries no longer have any form of monarchy in the current day. And we usually call old empires "rike" like Romarriket (Roman Empire). The HRE in Swedish is "Tysk-Romerska Riket" which translates roughly to German-Roman Empire. And for the second and third reichs we say "Tyska Riket" for the German Empire and "Tredje Riket" for the Third Reich (although like a lot of other people we mostly just say Nazi Germany).
there's also "Svearike" which tbh is more common because that specifies which kingdom not just that it's the kingdom. in this case the proper translation would be "the realm of the swedes" rike being realm, same for the "Konungariket" or "Kungariket" it translates to "the king's realm"
All of Scandinavia is like that, really. Here in Norway, our country is "Kongeriket Norge". And "Konge" is our word for King, and we titulate our monarch as "(Hans Majestet) Kong Harald". Our word for Emperor/Kaiser is "Keiser". Japan is therefore "Et keiserrike". We also use the term "Det Tysk- Romerske Rike" for medieval and early-modern Germany. Later iterrations would be "Det Tyske Rike" and "Det Tredje Rike". But, for Hitler's period, the term "Nazi- Tyskland" is the most commonly used by far.
When it comes to France, the term Frankreich was termed as Reich der Franken, or Realm of the Francs and it was a kingdom at the time. It just did not change when the French decided to get rid of the whole Monarchy thing. And at least during the first Republic it made perfect sense for the German speaking countries to insist that it was FrankREICH, as they opposed the republic and did not accept it as legitimate, trying to help reinstate the French Kings. Later with the 3rd Republic when that whole being a Kingdom, Empire question was finally settled in France, nobody in Germany really thought it necessary to change the name. Apart from that, there is always the possiblity to call it the "Französische Republik".
You're kinda forgetting to mention that the Franks (or Francs) weren't French, but Germanic. However in the geographic area back then, what we now call France there lived originally no Franks. Ofcourse the people that lived there were the Gauls. With the Franks originating from western Germany and the low countries. During Charlemagne's reign and his successors the term Frank slowly began to be associated with the people down South, mostly the Gauls. Which is how the German (and Dutch) name for France stuck with the Gauls.
Well done! However a small correction. The title "Caesar (Kaiser)" was already transferred in 795 to Charlemagne by Pope Leo III. So for the first time since 476 there was a a new "Kaiser in the western part of the Roman Empire. Charlemange however wasn't a German King but the King of the Francs before the Franconian Empire felt apart. Theoretically the "Kaiserkrone" could also have went to the western part of the Franconian Empire and it was not exclusively bound to the German crown - in theory at least. E.g. there some attempts that french Kings (while holding land in the Holy Empire) tried to become Kaiser. And later own in the time of the Habsburger it was even more split. So was Maximilian I German King since 1486, while is father Frederick III: still was the Emperor.
Also interestingly, there never was a female german emperor, as the title went by male only primogeniture. This had the silly sideeffect that Maria Theresia Archeduchess of Austria and Queen Regnant of Hungary, but NOT Empress of the Holy Roman Empire in her own right. This title was given to her husband Franz I. using her influence. She was therefore Empress Consort through her husband, while she herself was the one calling the shots.
@@tobio.5968 For the longest time, the title of German Emperor (i.e. Emperor of the HRE), was elective. The Habsburgs did their best to secure the election of their successors, but other rulers could be (and were) elected to the position. It was however male-only.
To be even more accurate, Charlemagne was crowned "Emperor of the Romans" in Rome on Christmas day 800. At that point, Germany as a country wasn't even a thing. During the middle ages, the German monarchs were officially referred to as "Roman king" / "römischer Köng" as long as they were not crowned Emperor. At the beginning of the early modern period Kaiser Maximilian I. was the first monarch to be referred to as "König von Germanien", but it never was the most important title.
@@tobio.5968 Fun fact: The main reason the pope felt like he could transfer the imperial crown to Charlemagne was that the actual Roman Emperor at that time was a woman: Irene of Athens of the Isaurian Dynasty. And while there were no official empresses of the HRE, some of them held the power of an emperor. And at least Theophanu also signed as "Theophanis Gratia Divina Imperator Augustus" - i.e. as Emperor - while she ruled in her son's stead.
Realm is fairly well at translating. The subsequent clarifications of the specificities regarding the realms size and ruler type is just as needed in other germanic languages. For a german or a scandinavian (reich/realm/rige) it is also nessecary to clarify if it is a kejser/emperor or a konge/king, resulting in kejserrige and kongerige respectively in danish.
excellent video. as someone who is half english, half german, i really appreciate the effort of pronouncing "reich" in both the english and german way. props.
Kaiser is not actually the Latin Cesar pronounced the German way. The German Kaiser is - according to Latin scholars - what the Latin word Cesar actually sounded in Latin (or very close to it)
Almost. "Kaiser" is pronounced /ˈkaɪ̯zər/, but the most likely Classical Latin pronunciation was /ˈkae̯.sar/. In particular, the "s" is always voiced in the German pronunciation, but not (as far as we know) in the Latin.
@@rewboss Indeed. Whether intervocalic s might, to some degree, have been voiced or not is what Latin scholars can get all worked up about after a few drinks at a party. ;)
@@rewboss I can confirm that "S" isn't voiced in any language derived from Latin when the "S" is in the beginning or end of a word. An "S" also will be voiced only if the previous syllable ends in a vowel - except Spanish, where "S" and "Z" are always voiceless. There is an exception where the last "S" in a word is voiced and it happens when the next word starts with a vowel sound, but not in every Latin-based language. Loose words still have a voiceless ending "S" no matter what we think. 🙃 I wrote all this to say that "S" in Cæser probably has a "Z" sound (voiced "S".)
It gets even more interesting: the current German Federal Republic is merely the latest expression of an entity that's been founded in 1867 as "Norddeutscher Bund" (north german federation). Everything since then, the North German Federation, the (second) German Empire, the Weimar Republic, the Nazi Dictatorship, the two separate German Republics and the united FRG are all the same. The type of government and political ideology may have changed several times, but all of this is technically the same legal entity.
Not quite, everything but the GDR and FRG (49-90) is the same, but those two split "states" don't acctually count, because they were merely particularly independent occupation administrations. Though functionally extremely similar to the FRG (49-90), the modern FRG is not the same entity as that one.
@@MajinOthinus I remember that the Federal Constitutional Court ruled that the Federal Republic of Germany is the legal successor state of the German Reich and thus also goes back to the North German Confederation, which was founded in 1867. Although the name and the constitution have changed, the Federal Republic must, for example, continue to adhere to treaties concluded with the church before 1949, because the constitutional court has clearly decided that the Federal Republic is not a "new" state under international law, but that the old one has been merged into it .
@@Nerdlabor Yes, the modern German state is identical with every German state before 45, but the FRG and GDR do not count, as they were not states, but occupation regimes.
@@MajinOthinus The FRG literally counts because it got full authority in 1955, even if some very minor de jure restrictions were held till the 4+2 treaty. And it's not like a new German state formed in 1990, the East German states simply joined the already existing Federal Republic. East Germany meanwhile also saw itself as *the* German state, being the same as the Reich. That only changed duo to constitutional amendments in 1968 and 1974 where the GDR redefined itself as a new German worker's and peasent state that doesn't have anything to do with the previous Reichs.
I would also add that Charles the Great had a good reason to think of himself as like a Western Roman Emperor. He had a pretty large chunk of what was controlled by the last of those emperors, like basically all of Gaul except for Brittany, Catalonia and the Basque regions, the modern day Benelux, the northern half of Italy and had power over the city of Rome itself, probably even more than the pope, a pretty big deal if you want to be seen as Roman, and had much of Dalmatia, all of Switzerland, Corsica, and Austria which the original Romans did have at the beginning of the 5th century CE. Between them and the Romans in Constantinople, it was pretty much what the Romans in the time of the birth of Julius Caesar had except for the northern coast of Africa and Hispania.
You’ve earned a subscriber for your direct and effective presentation and an impeccable German pronunciation ^ω^ I look forward to seeing more like this!!
Nice and funny explanation. You forget to mention - to complicated things - that the last Holy Roman Emperor was a Habsburger and archduke of Austria. Prior to disolving the Holy Roman Empire he declared Austria an empire and himself the Emperor of Austria because he didn't wanted to bei outranked by Napoleon, Turn Emperor of France.
Here’s 1 my friend New money is created when someone applies for a loan , This means that banks do not provide loans ,as prior to the application of said loan there is nothing to be loaned
In Poland word Reich is translated to Rzesza which means a large crowd. Often used in context of large number of combatants or workers. For example - "rzesza popleczników" translates to "multitude of supporters".
I have heard a bit about the linguistic complications of the phrase _Reich_ (including from some of your videos!), but I found this informative anyways! I, for instance, didn't know the Nazis' opponents mocked the idea of a "Third _Reich"_ so frequently, they abandoned the term! If that was how hard the mockeries were, I would like to see what they looked like. Thanks for the video!
The nazis ("nazi" also being a term made by detractors for the purpose of mockery, actually) imprisoned a guy because he taught his dog their salute for a laugh. They're some of the most sensitive people in history.
4:56 Karen: I want to speak to your manager! King of Prussia: OK, I'll go get him just give me a second. *returns with a different crown and robe* How can I help you?
"Imperium Romanum" is interesting, because it was used by Romans before they haf an emperor. "Imperium" means command or the authority to command, and was used to describe the area wich was ruled by the Romans. "Imperator" was originally a victorious military commander.
There are three criteria for something being an empire: unified governance, multinational (which meant more than a kingdom for quite some time) and the tendency to conquer countries around it. Rome became an empire after the second punic war, 150 years before Ceasar.
@@beageler That is only one form of empire. The other form of empire is simply being ruled by what is internationally recognised as an Emperor, which made Japan an empire for a very long time indeed, despite for the vast majority of time not fulfilling the criteria for the other definition of empire.
@@Osvath97 1868 is not that long ago, besides the domination and later annexation of Korea just a few years after the Meji restoration,, one can't forget about the subjugation of the Ryukyu. Japan had been multinational for a long time before the empire. The emperor was called emperor by western people, so they will have had the western reasoning for it. otherwise they would've translated tenno as king.
Empire doesn't necessarily have the connotation of "being ruled by an Emperor" in English either, considering it has been used to describe the colonial Empires that were established by western European kingdoms (Britain, France, Spain, Portugal, etc) and even the Dutch Republic established a colonial Empire. It has also been used to describe particular powerful countries in general like the Swedish Empire in the early 18th century which was also only ruled by a king.
@@soundscape26 Oh, but it is. At least, the name is no different from earlier "iterations" of Japan and interestingly in almost exactly the same situation as the "Reich" part in German; that being 日本国, where 「国」 has basically the same exact meaning and connotations as "Reich" does. You can see this quite illustratively with this: 中国 -> lit. German translation "Reich [der] Mitte" -> China.
I think the "Empire" in "Swedish empire" refers to Sweden at the time controlling numerous dominions outside Sweden proper. Only Sweden and Finland was considered to be the "real" Sweden, while places like Pomerania and Livonia were dominions that maintained a lot of their own laws, and didn't have any say in the Swedish parliament.
@@MajinOthinus I don’t know about Japanese, but in Chinese that character just means „country“. It is also in the word „Republic“: 共和国 gònghéguó. China is just the country at the center, and Japan the country where the sun does rise.
I think that for France it's a bit more complicated. It's called Frankreich because it was a kingdom until the revolution of 1789, but the name stayed the same for various reasons; the regime changed quite a few times during the 19th century but also like you said, the word "reich" is also not really translatable. Just like in french, Germany is called "Allemagne" which come from the Alemannii tribe but the name itself was used for the whole state. But every "germanic" language is in the same situation: in the nordic languages it's "Reike" and in dutch it's "Rijke".
it's actually "rike" for us swedes, still holds the same meaning as the german and other nordic ones but it aint the same word per say. can't really group us nords together in language like that because we definitely do have differences in our language
Thank you for this great video explaining German history the first one I finally understood the whole holy Roman Empire thing everywhere else everyone glosses over as a bit weird and complicated
It is complicated once you get into the details. As an elective monarchy, there were a lot of weird aspects to its laws and territorial boundaries. Many dukes and Kings held territory outside the empire but those territories were never considered part of the empire.
I think domain is the best English translation for Reich. Because "domain" best fits the use of the word. "Reich" implies a region/area that belongs to someone/something or is for someone/something. Frankreich is the domain of the Franks, Österreich is the domain of the Austrians. A domain doesn't have to be ruled by a monarch or single ruler, but the name implies someone or something has dominion over it. I think you can't go any better than domain.
a more correct translation of "Reich" could be : "territory ruled by some type of government" or even "fixed region in which the people share a similar or identical culture" - the word definitely describes an *area* but can also be used for ideologies, cultures and even abstract concepts like "Feenreich" - meaning: some, possibly unknown region or area in which mythical creatures (fairies) live. German is a very complex and also flexible language :-)
Frankreich = France = Frankrike in Swedish Österreich = Austria = Österrike in Swedish Sweden = Sverige, which means Svea rike, rike is kind of corresponding to Reich
@@HappyBeezerStudios In the olden days Sweden used to be refered to as "Svíþjóð". "Sví" after the Svear people. "þjóð" meaning "nation". The same origin as "Deutsch" (of the people).
@@marna_li you're gonna have to go real far back for that name, like viking age and before back. also it kinda only is about a small part of what is sweden (the southern lands were more danish at the time and the north was sapmi)
A note on the Byzantine Empire competing for the title of successor to Rome [3:30]: It ceased to exist in in 1453, when the Ottomans conquered Constantinople.
Yes France is called frankreich in german but i think its because it comes from the germanic tribe "franken" that conquered france, latinised over time and became france. the germans just kept the name frankreich because it was once the reich of the franks. Also i think that empire is the most accurate translation of reich. In austria (where i live lol) teachers use the words englisches reich and russisches reich for the english and the russian empires.
Yes, once it was called Frankreich (Frankenreich, Reich of the Franks), nobody bothered to rename it after it became a republik. BTW Österreich is, I think, just the Eastern Reich or Reich of the East. There's a lot more to it as Franks as a tribe were divided in German speaking Franken and actual French speaking people.
Outstanding job as always. Extra credit for your German pronunciation, especially of the r, ch and, a sound that English native speakers seem to be able to get right, the long ö. E. g. in "Römisches Reich"
A quick correction. The Nazis didn't originate the "First, Second, and third Reich" terminology. That comes from a 1923 book by Arthur Moeller van den Bruck called "Das Dritte Reich" which the nazis loved. In the book the first and second Reichs are the HRE and Imperial Germany but the 3rd Reich is an idealized and moral concept for what Germany could be and should strive to be. But not actually a political manifesto for a real State. The Nazis took this concept and ran with it trying to connect ideal Germany with Nazi Germany. We have a similar concept with "The Fourth Reich" being a resurgent and powerful Germany dominated Europe, which does have negative connotations because of the Nazis. In the 1920s, "Empire" in general and *Reich* specifically didn't have negative connections like they do now.
Interestingly, though, officially the "Weimar Republic" (and its constitution) were in effect from August 1919 up until May 1945. But practically the Nazis changed the constitution in 1933/34 so drastically, that it wasn't.
No. This video was about wording or labels, and something like the Weimar Republic never existed. People today called it this way, or maybe the term "Weimarer Verfassung" was already used in that time, but the official name, appearing on the document was just "Die Verfassung des Deutschen Reichs". It's like talking about the Kyoto-Protocol and things like that. It's a simplification for everyday use, not an official label.
@@NicolaW72 Once again, the topic was naming the constitution, not their validity. You invented an other name "constitution of 1919" and it's generally understood.
To put it short and simple: This is an English problem. No other language mixes things up like the English. No other Germanic language has any problem in this terminology.
some people go as far as to say that English is not really Germanic anymore, since it has lost a lot of Germanic traits. Old English, however, is actually very close to German in terms of grammar and pronounciation (although spelling is quite different)
@@bumpsy The entire structure of the language is Germanic, how sentences are build up, and almost all expressions, and all basic words. Only the garlands (Dutch: guirlandes/slingers) on the Christmas tree are (damaged) French. So we Dutch have both, flensje AND crêpe.
@@dutchman7623 but French and Latin influenced English much stronger than Dutch. and English started to forget their own Germanic words. England had a French speaking ruling class for several centuries after Norman conquest of 1066.
Bible prophecy in Book of Daniel says that there will be only 4 great empires, Rome being the last. Doesn't say that when Rome falls the world will end. Just that no other empire will rule all of what is now Europe ( the feet and toes of part clay, part iron in the statute with gold head and silver chest) Charlemagne tried and failed, likewise Napoleon, likewise Hilter.
I would translate "Reich" with "Reach" (Reichweite). Both, in case of an Empire and Republic, it's how far the territory reaches or the power of the monarch/populus reaches.
Österreich the smallest Reich and the only one left alive even tow we are a republic now we still kept the crown of the HRE and some buyses that put K and K in ther name.
France used to be a realm. Germans just did not bother to come up with a new Name. (propably because so many of their revolutions resulted in an Emperor being crowned) As a German I would not say that France qualifies as a Reich. A countys name not always reflects its properties.
In Norway, we have an equivalent of Reich, "Rike". Though Norwegian is a Germanic language, so that is probably why. Here is my rough translation (with some help from Google Translate of what the Norwegian Wikipedia site says: is used as a term for a state, also about a royal or imperial power in itself. In a broader and transferred sense, it is also used in poetic contexts about a piece of land, for example about "the kingdom of God" ("Guds Rike" in Norwegian) and so on. It also mentions sme pleces for some examples where the norwegian word "Rike" is used inside the word: romeriket (Roman Empire), Det Osmanske Rike (The Ottoman Empire), det tysk-romerske rike (the German-Roman Empire), det tyske riket (the German Empire), and kongeriket Norge (Kingdom of Norway)
I'd reckon Reich would be close estimated as a noun for the english word "reach" (german "reichen") as it describes the reach of power of a certain central instance (king/emperor) for the lands around.
Outside of the UK though most modern English speakers would not know that meaning of reach very well though these days. So I agree whilst also can see why a translation to reach could be problematic.
0:56 - Could it not be translated as "state", or "nation-state"? "The German State"? That would seem to kind of encompass {kingdom, empire, realm, domain}. But I guess maybe those words have more of a geographic connotation? edit: Oh, never mind. I hear it now. You said it: " a _significantly large_ *state* with _definite borders_ "
Thanks. That was a very interesting video. The bit on Daniel's prophesies however, left out the 5th empire made up of fragments of the 4th kingdom (Roman Empire) and weaker nations as symbolised in the feet of iron and clay in the Statue vision. Therefore the end of the Roman empire was not the sign of the end of the world but the end of this 5th period is to be the last before the messiah comes to replace it.
I do think the "realm" translation is correct, the name "Frankreich" is way older than the modern republic. You wouldn't call other modern countries a "Reich".
6th August 1806, with the abdication of Emperor Francis II. In doing so, he released the Electors, Princes and Imperial Estates from their obligations to the Crown, and so dissolved the Holy Roman Empire for good.
3:35 Roman C was not soft, so caesar was pronounced kaesar which is very close to the German kaisar after all, Thx for that video though, i've learned stuff!
"realm" is a great translation of "reich", notwithstanding your objection that rea-lm is roy-al with the connotation of king, answering your objection in the German by adding the prefix "könig" when specifically the realm is of a king, or a kingdom, which you know whilst still objecting.
I mean...from the way you described it it seems to me like “reich” could easily be literally translated as “country” or “nation”. Or perhaps more broadly, “jurisdiction area”. Am I wrong?
Can we take a moment to appreciate the format of the video ? No BS, no ads, no sponsors, no lengthy intro, straight and concise to the topic. I love it.
There are ads just not video ads. Anyway, youtubers have to make money.
@@ColburnClassroom I fully support the sentiment of youtubers having to make money. It's just lately I've been hit with multiple shameless ads and sponsor plugs, which only worsens the situation that youtube now puts 2 ads before and after the video. It's just a nice change of pace to see this kind of channel.
@@binaryglitch64 .
@@ChloeHartzog fair enough
@@binaryglitch64 This is one of those accounts.
Also two (2) of the likes on my comment as Grant are from myself and are only there because that's what it took to keep my comment from being unjustly auto-deleted.
The german word "Kaiser" is actually pretty close in pronounciation to the classical latin word "Caesar"
Exactly, the Romans pronounced it something like 'kaisar'.
th-cam.com/video/IjcX3MVSdyA/w-d-xo.html
I wanted to say the exact same thing at 3:42
Me too
Yes kaysar and kaiser
That isn't a coincidence
I, a German, think the word 'realm' is a good translation to 'Reich'. And yes, 'France' is called 'Frankreich', but the name was given before the republic started in France and just didn't get changed
I, a Swiss-German, think you're wrong or how would you explain the German word for Austria? Österreich was called that way long before it became an empire.
@@zoomerboomer1396 ....Don't forget Austria has also been called in the past as "the Ost Mark" or east mark
Sweden is called Swea Reich, but have been jumbled to something to the equivalent of Swerich. Funny stuff.
Empire is the proper translation of Reich. Realm is stupid.
@@zoomerboomer1396 The "Reich" in "Österreich" may have originally referred to East Francia or the Duchy of Bavaria, which surely qualify as a realms and of which it was the easternmost region.
I‘m German and I learned alot from both the video and the comment section. Sometimes it needs a view from outside to understand one’s own history or state better. Thank you!
This video was not only informative, but it was set up to the point where I could easily catch on. AND NO ADS.
For a more deeper understanding: Reich originates from the same Words as the english "reach" and "rich" and thus has the same meaning, just that in Germany it does not stand alone anymore - it is to see in "reichweite" (reach). A "Reich" is the "reach" of a Ruler, defining the Region by his grasp of it over it.
Empire would be "Imperium" and derives from the latin Impera - "to rule (over)".
Iirc this comes from something as "rîch" or so that referred to "what one posesses" uniform for his/her Land, Animals, Objects and People. You even find it in "Rîgh" and such Words.
Not completely correct: If a person is very wealthy, or rich, he is "reich".
Or to say, the noun "Reich" doesn't stand alone any more, but the adjective "reich".
I believe that the English word "reach" and "rich" are also related to Latin word "rex" (king), and thus (by extension) the word "reign", "regal", "royal", and "realm". All of these words came from the Proto-Indo-European word "*h₃rḗǵs" ("ruler", "king").
English used to have the word "rike/riche" which was related to the German word "Reich". This noun is not used anymore in Modern English. However, its adjective form "rich" (related to the German adjective "reich") is still widely used.
The suffix "-ric" in "bishopric" also survives in English.
@@harrietriddle2197 Interestingly, the German word for "bishopric" is "Bistum" ("Bischof"+"-tum"), using the "-tum" suffix (related to the English suffix "-dom") instead of "*Bischofreich" (a more literal "translation").
The "ae" in "Caesar" was originally spoken the greek way, like "ai" in the German language. The word "Kaiser" is written like that in German, because it got written how "Caesar" was spoken. If you would pronounce the name Caesar how it was pronounced in ancient times, it would sound very close to how "Kaiser" is spoken in German language.
And about "Reich" you can define it as an area that belongs to something or somebody. Even a private person could call his home his "Reich". A Königreich is the area that belongs to a King, Kaiserreich is the area that belongs to a Kaiser. "Deutsches Reich" would mean it is the area that belongs to the Germans, "Frankreich" means the area that belongs to the Franks and so on.
It is correct in some way, not to call "Deutsches Reich" as German Empire, because we have the word "Imperium" with a specific meaning that differs from how we use "Reich". The Roman Empire, Imperium Romanum, Römisches Reich is a specific topic, that includes both concepts, the concept of "Reich" and the concept of "Imperium".
"Imperium" has a slightly different meaning than "Reich". While a Reich "belongs to", an Imperium "is ruled by". So the Holy Roman Empire consisted of many "Reiche" (areas the belonged to somebody), but they all were somehow ruled by a "Kaiser". The German Empire was ruled by a Kaiser, but the Empire didn't belong to him. He was called a German Emperor (Deutscher Kaiser) and not Emperor of Germany (Kaiser von Deutschland). This might be confusing, because people from outside would have called him Emperor of Germany, but for the other Rulers of German territorries it was very important, because as German Emperor he was not above all other rulers. He was not one above all, but first of many.
The later German Reich was different, because it wasn't ruled by an emperor. It simply was the area that belonged to the Germans.
Thanks. Very elaborate explanation.
@@michaels.5147 the Caesar explain ja massiv wrong!
Im German ans Caesar ans Kaiser dont Sound nearly the same...
I dont know je you unterstand but we speak it like:
Zäsar-caesar
And
Kai-ser like the Name "Kay or Kai"
So you see its complete different how it sounds
@@TheGamli Well then you misread what pakabe wrote. You are speaking of the German leanword Cäsar. He was writing about the Latin word Caesar and its pronunciation in Latin where he is totally correct that the (classical) Latin Caesar and the German Kaiser sound very similar. In Latin the c is more like a soft g mixed with a c and there is an a where German has an e, but the pronunciation shows clearly where the German Kaiser originated.
Here is a good phonetic explanation :
th-cam.com/video/IjcX3MVSdyA/w-d-xo.html
@@michaels.5147 Ah i didnt understand he means the latin pronounce
Cause he wrote "old german" so i thougth something different
The "German Emperor" was never called German Emperor. Wilhelm I was called Emperor Wilhelm and Wilhelm II was called Emperor of Germany if you didn´t know that. The "German Emperor" was above all other but only in ranks, not in power.
A Kaiser outranking himself is very common, actually. Pretty much every royal would also carry lower titles - Elizabeth II for example is also Duchess of Normandy, Lancaster, etc. The Kaiser of the HRE was almost always also Archduke of Austria, King of Germany, and so on.
Sure, the HRE was very specific. In General there never was anybody getting elected if he wasn't a ruler of some territory. In fact the election of a Kaiser wasn't really an election of a Kaiser, because the former German tribes elected their King and they kept it as such in the HRE. That is one reason, because it was not allowed to any ruler inside the HRE to be a king - at least for a very long time. (This is one reason because the first Prussian king wasn't allowed to call himself King of Prussia, but King in Prussia).
After the king was elected, he had the right to be crowned as kaiser by the pope. But there could be a long time between becoming king and becoming kaiser. And another point is, that the Kaiser himself didn't have imperial territories himself. He could make use of the Kaiserpfalzen (some kind of administrative areas), but his power always came from his own territories.
@@pakabe8774 or to quote most TH-camrs who talk about the Holy Roman Empire:" The Holy Roman Empire was neither Holy nor Roman nor an Empire XD
@@malte1984 But true just in the last period of its existence.
In fact this hoarding of lower titles by the monarch was one of the mechanism by which the European monarchies broke the vassalage system.
While it illustrates the point, the two examples used for Elizabeth II are both quite peculiar examples. Duke of Normandy (and that's specifically the male Duke, not Duchess) is a title specific to Guernsey and Jersey (not the UK), and is used by both to refer to her as head of state. Similarly on the Isle of Man, she is the Lord of Mann. In the UK itself, lesser titles cannot be held by the Monarch because they create the titles. Duke of Lancaster (again, male form) is basically a job title which provides financial income from the Duchy of Lancaster (think of it as sort-of private company with some government oversight, which earns money from land and developments).
Prince Charles is a better example. His main title is Prince of Wales (since 1958), but he also holds the lesser titles Duke of Cornwall, Duke of Rothesay, Earl of Carrick, Baron of Renfrew, Lord of the Isles, Prince and Great Steward of Scotland (automatically received as heir apparent in 1952), Earl of Chester (created 1958), Duke of Edinburgh, Earl of Merioneth, and Baron Greenwich (inherited in 2021).
What an awesome video! No fooling around, no misconceptions, no subjective thoughts dressed as objective facts. Just plain old information about an interesting topic, given in an adequate pace, without getting boring.
It's been a long time since I've seen a video this well done while not being commercially produced.
Yeah, this guy (friendliness intended) is good and talented at bringing what he promises.
I, as a German, couldn't have explained it better myself. That is because i had no idea prior to watching this video. Thank you, rewboss!
Trivia: In the German dub of _Star Wars IV - A New Hope_ Emperor Palpatine is referred to as "Kaiser"! Only since _The Empire Strikes Back_ has he been called "Imperator" instead. However, the Galactic Empire has always been dubbed as "das Imperium".
Latin words sound more majestic.
@@holger_p Which is ironic, since the german "Kaiser" is and sounds pretty much like the latin "Caesar".
@@DeutscherDummer this was about imperium vs reich.
Or Revolution vs Umdrehung, or exklusive vs ausschließlich. It sounds educated
"Kaiser" sounds too historic/medieval for a futuristic movie, "Imperator" is timeless.
@@pauls1758 Meh, there were Kaisers until 1918, the 20th century, and if Germany had won ww1 or the Kaiser had still lost but not forced to abdicate, we could have very much seen the Kaisers stay in power for much later, maybe to this day, or undermined by a fascist or other radixal like in Italy
Just in case you're in for some more confusion 😉:
Starting with the late 15th century, the _Holy Roman Empire_ was called the _Holy Roman Empire of the German Nation_ .
According to Wikipedia ( en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holy_Roman_Empire ) _"The new title was adopted partly because the Empire lost most of its territories in Italy and Burgundy to the south and west by the late 15th century, but also to emphasize the new importance of the German Imperial Estates in ruling the Empire due to the Imperial Reform."_
There is no confusion. Only if you want it to be
@@dagmarvandoren9364 I was referring to 4:00 (and some other statements in the video) and I wasn't being entirely serious about it (as the emoji following the sentence shows).
American Zionism th-cam.com/video/fwfr6x51xAM/w-d-xo.html ?vdsa fddsadf
and also maybe because it was no true Empire? HRE was a bunch of rival warring cunt german states that had no semblance to anything of an Empire, nor Holy, or Roman. It was bullshit.
Here in Sweden (another country with a Germanic language) it is very similar. We say "rike" and it generally applies the same as the German "reich". Our own country is "Kungariket (or Konungariket, Konung and Kung are synonyms for King in Swedish) Sverige" and just like how in german France is Frankreich and Austria is Österreich, in Swedish they are Frankrike and Österrike. Which also is ironic since both of those countries no longer have any form of monarchy in the current day. And we usually call old empires "rike" like Romarriket (Roman Empire). The HRE in Swedish is "Tysk-Romerska Riket" which translates roughly to German-Roman Empire. And for the second and third reichs we say "Tyska Riket" for the German Empire and "Tredje Riket" for the Third Reich (although like a lot of other people we mostly just say Nazi Germany).
there's also "Svearike" which tbh is more common because that specifies which kingdom not just that it's the kingdom. in this case the proper translation would be "the realm of the swedes" rike being realm, same for the "Konungariket" or "Kungariket" it translates to "the king's realm"
agrees in norwegian
@@goranpersson7726 Yes and I also forgot to mention that the Swedish name for Sweden: "Sverige" does derive from "Svea Rike"
All of Scandinavia is like that, really.
Here in Norway, our country is "Kongeriket Norge". And "Konge" is our word for King, and we titulate our monarch as "(Hans Majestet) Kong Harald". Our word for Emperor/Kaiser is "Keiser". Japan is therefore "Et keiserrike". We also use the term "Det Tysk- Romerske Rike" for medieval and early-modern Germany. Later iterrations would be "Det Tyske Rike" and "Det Tredje Rike". But, for Hitler's period, the term "Nazi- Tyskland" is the most commonly used by far.
American Zionism th-cam.com/video/fwfr6x51xAM/w-d-xo.html ?vdsa43asdfsa
Thanks!
All information. No filler. No stereotypes. No judgement on old stereotypes.
This is quality.
i love this
When it comes to France, the term Frankreich was termed as Reich der Franken, or Realm of the Francs and it was a kingdom at the time. It just did not change when the French decided to get rid of the whole Monarchy thing. And at least during the first Republic it made perfect sense for the German speaking countries to insist that it was FrankREICH, as they opposed the republic and did not accept it as legitimate, trying to help reinstate the French Kings. Later with the 3rd Republic when that whole being a Kingdom, Empire question was finally settled in France, nobody in Germany really thought it necessary to change the name. Apart from that, there is always the possiblity to call it the "Französische Republik".
same with Österreich, Reich der Östers😛🤣
You're kinda forgetting to mention that the Franks (or Francs) weren't French, but Germanic. However in the geographic area back then, what we now call France there lived originally no Franks. Ofcourse the people that lived there were the Gauls. With the Franks originating from western Germany and the low countries.
During Charlemagne's reign and his successors the term Frank slowly began to be associated with the people down South, mostly the Gauls. Which is how the German (and Dutch) name for France stuck with the Gauls.
Well done! However a small correction. The title "Caesar (Kaiser)" was already transferred in 795 to Charlemagne by Pope Leo III. So for the first time since 476 there was a a new "Kaiser in the western part of the Roman Empire. Charlemange however wasn't a German King but the King of the Francs before the Franconian Empire felt apart. Theoretically the "Kaiserkrone" could also have went to the western part of the Franconian Empire and it was not exclusively bound to the German crown - in theory at least. E.g. there some attempts that french Kings (while holding land in the Holy Empire) tried to become Kaiser. And later own in the time of the Habsburger it was even more split. So was Maximilian I German King since 1486, while is father Frederick III: still was the Emperor.
Also interestingly, there never was a female german emperor, as the title went by male only primogeniture. This had the silly sideeffect that Maria Theresia Archeduchess of Austria and Queen Regnant of Hungary, but NOT Empress of the Holy Roman Empire in her own right. This title was given to her husband Franz I. using her influence. She was therefore Empress Consort through her husband, while she herself was the one calling the shots.
@@tobio.5968 For the longest time, the title of German Emperor (i.e. Emperor of the HRE), was elective. The Habsburgs did their best to secure the election of their successors, but other rulers could be (and were) elected to the position. It was however male-only.
To be even more accurate, Charlemagne was crowned "Emperor of the Romans" in Rome on Christmas day 800. At that point, Germany as a country wasn't even a thing. During the middle ages, the German monarchs were officially referred to as "Roman king" / "römischer Köng" as long as they were not crowned Emperor. At the beginning of the early modern period Kaiser Maximilian I. was the first monarch to be referred to as "König von Germanien", but it never was the most important title.
Napoleon was a French emperor
@@tobio.5968 Fun fact: The main reason the pope felt like he could transfer the imperial crown to Charlemagne was that the actual Roman Emperor at that time was a woman: Irene of Athens of the Isaurian Dynasty.
And while there were no official empresses of the HRE, some of them held the power of an emperor. And at least Theophanu also signed as "Theophanis Gratia Divina Imperator Augustus" - i.e. as Emperor - while she ruled in her son's stead.
Realm is fairly well at translating. The subsequent clarifications of the specificities regarding the realms size and ruler type is just as needed in other germanic languages. For a german or a scandinavian (reich/realm/rige) it is also nessecary to clarify if it is a kejser/emperor or a konge/king, resulting in kejserrige and kongerige respectively in danish.
American Zionism th-cam.com/video/fwfr6x51xAM/w-d-xo.html ?vdsa 43asdfdsfdsa
Man the algorithm is on fire today giving me random new content. I really enjoy your delivery/pattern of speech. Immediate subscribe.
excellent video. as someone who is half english, half german, i really appreciate the effort of pronouncing "reich" in both the english and german way. props.
Kaiser is not actually the Latin Cesar pronounced the German way. The German Kaiser is - according to Latin scholars - what the Latin word Cesar actually sounded in Latin (or very close to it)
The Käser is the noblest of professions!
Almost. "Kaiser" is pronounced /ˈkaɪ̯zər/, but the most likely Classical Latin pronunciation was /ˈkae̯.sar/. In particular, the "s" is always voiced in the German pronunciation, but not (as far as we know) in the Latin.
@@rewboss Indeed. Whether intervocalic s might, to some degree, have been voiced or not is what Latin scholars can get all worked up about after a few drinks at a party. ;)
@@rewboss I can confirm that "S" isn't voiced in any language derived from Latin when the "S" is in the beginning or end of a word. An "S" also will be voiced only if the previous syllable ends in a vowel - except Spanish, where "S" and "Z" are always voiceless.
There is an exception where the last "S" in a word is voiced and it happens when the next word starts with a vowel sound, but not in every Latin-based language. Loose words still have a voiceless ending "S" no matter what we think. 🙃
I wrote all this to say that "S" in Cæser probably has a "Z" sound (voiced "S".)
Well over centuries, you have vowel and consontants shifts, and no real idea how things were pronounced 2000 years ago. So etymology is always vage.
It gets even more interesting:
the current German Federal Republic is merely the latest expression of an entity that's been founded in 1867 as "Norddeutscher Bund" (north german federation). Everything since then, the North German Federation, the (second) German Empire, the Weimar Republic, the Nazi Dictatorship, the two separate German Republics and the united FRG are all the same. The type of government and political ideology may have changed several times, but all of this is technically the same legal entity.
Not quite, everything but the GDR and FRG (49-90) is the same, but those two split "states" don't acctually count, because they were merely particularly independent occupation administrations. Though functionally extremely similar to the FRG (49-90), the modern FRG is not the same entity as that one.
@@MajinOthinus I remember that the Federal Constitutional Court ruled that the Federal Republic of Germany is the legal successor state of the German Reich and thus also goes back to the North German Confederation, which was founded in 1867. Although the name and the constitution have changed, the Federal Republic must, for example, continue to adhere to treaties concluded with the church before 1949, because the constitutional court has clearly decided that the Federal Republic is not a "new" state under international law, but that the old one has been merged into it .
@@Nerdlabor Yes, the modern German state is identical with every German state before 45, but the FRG and GDR do not count, as they were not states, but occupation regimes.
@@MajinOthinus The FRG literally counts because it got full authority in 1955, even if some very minor de jure restrictions were held till the 4+2 treaty. And it's not like a new German state formed in 1990, the East German states simply joined the already existing Federal Republic.
East Germany meanwhile also saw itself as *the* German state, being the same as the Reich. That only changed duo to constitutional amendments in 1968 and 1974 where the GDR redefined itself as a new German worker's and peasent state that doesn't have anything to do with the previous Reichs.
@Pol Pot 2024 Why do you deny anything you don't like with such breathtaking confidence yet don't state any opinion yourself?
Care to elaborate?
I would also add that Charles the Great had a good reason to think of himself as like a Western Roman Emperor. He had a pretty large chunk of what was controlled by the last of those emperors, like basically all of Gaul except for Brittany, Catalonia and the Basque regions, the modern day Benelux, the northern half of Italy and had power over the city of Rome itself, probably even more than the pope, a pretty big deal if you want to be seen as Roman, and had much of Dalmatia, all of Switzerland, Corsica, and Austria which the original Romans did have at the beginning of the 5th century CE. Between them and the Romans in Constantinople, it was pretty much what the Romans in the time of the birth of Julius Caesar had except for the northern coast of Africa and Hispania.
I believe this is a more accurate explanation as to why we know it as the Holy Roman Empire...
American Zionism th-cam.com/video/fwfr6x51xAM/w-d-xo.html ?vdsadsfdfdsa
That was a lot more complicated than I expected. Fantastic explanation.
Danke!
Thank you. :)
You’ve earned a subscriber for your direct and effective presentation and an impeccable German pronunciation ^ω^ I look forward to seeing more like this!!
Nice and funny explanation.
You forget to mention - to complicated things - that the last Holy Roman Emperor was a Habsburger and archduke of Austria. Prior to disolving the Holy Roman Empire he declared Austria an empire and himself the Emperor of Austria because he didn't wanted to bei outranked by Napoleon, Turn Emperor of France.
I'll take all the interesting facts i never heard of as my prize. Thank you!
Here’s 1 my friend
New money is created when someone applies for a loan ,
This means that banks do not provide loans ,as prior to the application of said loan there is nothing to be loaned
In Poland word Reich is translated to Rzesza which means a large crowd. Often used in context of large number of combatants or workers.
For example - "rzesza popleczników" translates to "multitude of supporters".
The " PRIZE ", Sir. Is learning something new. Thank you.
I have heard a bit about the linguistic complications of the phrase _Reich_ (including from some of your videos!), but I found this informative anyways! I, for instance, didn't know the Nazis' opponents mocked the idea of a "Third _Reich"_ so frequently, they abandoned the term! If that was how hard the mockeries were, I would like to see what they looked like. Thanks for the video!
Knowing how thin-skinned Nazis and others in that political direction are, it probably didn't take much mockery at all.
The nazis ("nazi" also being a term made by detractors for the purpose of mockery, actually) imprisoned a guy because he taught his dog their salute for a laugh. They're some of the most sensitive people in history.
@@plebisMaximus that was the British
@@Warpwaffel on you one of those people who call any non-communist a nazi?
@@yourmum69_420 Do you always throw around non sequiturs?
4:56
Karen: I want to speak to your manager!
King of Prussia: OK, I'll go get him just give me a second. *returns with a different crown and robe* How can I help you?
"Imperium Romanum" is interesting, because it was used by Romans before they haf an emperor. "Imperium" means command or the authority to command, and was used to describe the area wich was ruled by the Romans. "Imperator" was originally a victorious military commander.
There are three criteria for something being an empire: unified governance, multinational (which meant more than a kingdom for quite some time) and the tendency to conquer countries around it. Rome became an empire after the second punic war, 150 years before Ceasar.
@@beageler That is only one form of empire. The other form of empire is simply being ruled by what is internationally recognised as an Emperor, which made Japan an empire for a very long time indeed, despite for the vast majority of time not fulfilling the criteria for the other definition of empire.
But what did SPQR mean ? With out looking it up !! ( and l know the answer because l looked it up ! ( just to make sure ! )
@@Beliar_83 Yes l always thought it meant " For the Roman Senate " or " For the Glory of Rome " until l looked it up !
@@Osvath97 1868 is not that long ago, besides the domination and later annexation of Korea just a few years after the Meji restoration,, one can't forget about the subjugation of the Ryukyu. Japan had been multinational for a long time before the empire.
The emperor was called emperor by western people, so they will have had the western reasoning for it. otherwise they would've translated tenno as king.
Thank you, rewboss. It was very informative and interesting how you present this information.
I've been floating this question in my head for a while and never bothered looking it up. Thank you
Empire doesn't necessarily have the connotation of "being ruled by an Emperor" in English either, considering it has been used to describe the colonial Empires that were established by western European kingdoms (Britain, France, Spain, Portugal, etc) and even the Dutch Republic established a colonial Empire. It has also been used to describe particular powerful countries in general like the Swedish Empire in the early 18th century which was also only ruled by a king.
The other way round too since Japan has an emperor but it's not an empire anymore.
@@soundscape26 Oh, but it is. At least, the name is no different from earlier "iterations" of Japan and interestingly in almost exactly the same situation as the "Reich" part in German; that being 日本国, where 「国」 has basically the same exact meaning and connotations as "Reich" does. You can see this quite illustratively with this: 中国 -> lit. German translation "Reich [der] Mitte" -> China.
I think the "Empire" in "Swedish empire" refers to Sweden at the time controlling numerous dominions outside Sweden proper. Only Sweden and Finland was considered to be the "real" Sweden, while places like Pomerania and Livonia were dominions that maintained a lot of their own laws, and didn't have any say in the Swedish parliament.
@@soundscape26 Yes, it has a double meaning. In many other languages there are separate words like in Finnish: imperiumi and keisarikunta.
@@MajinOthinus I don’t know about Japanese, but in Chinese that character just means „country“. It is also in the word „Republic“: 共和国 gònghéguó. China is just the country at the center, and Japan the country where the sun does rise.
I think that for France it's a bit more complicated. It's called Frankreich because it was a kingdom until the revolution of 1789, but the name stayed the same for various reasons; the regime changed quite a few times during the 19th century but also like you said, the word "reich" is also not really translatable.
Just like in french, Germany is called "Allemagne" which come from the Alemannii tribe but the name itself was used for the whole state.
But every "germanic" language is in the same situation: in the nordic languages it's "Reike" and in dutch it's "Rijke".
it's actually "rike" for us swedes, still holds the same meaning as the german and other nordic ones but it aint the same word per say. can't really group us nords together in language like that because we definitely do have differences in our language
Thank you for this great video explaining German history the first one I finally understood the whole holy Roman Empire thing everywhere else everyone glosses over as a bit weird and complicated
It is complicated once you get into the details. As an elective monarchy, there were a lot of weird aspects to its laws and territorial boundaries. Many dukes and Kings held territory outside the empire but those territories were never considered part of the empire.
@@naphackDT interesting, I will have to dive deeper for a full understanding, thanks :)
American Zionism th-cam.com/video/fwfr6x51xAM/w-d-xo.html ?v dsafd43asdf as
Quick and to the point.... educational and entertaining! CRAZY! Thank you!
I think domain is the best English translation for Reich.
Because "domain" best fits the use of the word.
"Reich" implies a region/area that belongs to someone/something or is for someone/something.
Frankreich is the domain of the Franks, Österreich is the domain of the Austrians.
A domain doesn't have to be ruled by a monarch or single ruler, but the name implies someone or something has dominion over it.
I think you can't go any better than domain.
a more correct translation of "Reich" could be : "territory ruled by some type of government" or even "fixed region in which the people share a similar or identical culture" - the word definitely describes an *area* but can also be used for ideologies, cultures and even abstract concepts like "Feenreich" - meaning: some, possibly unknown region or area in which mythical creatures (fairies) live.
German is a very complex and also flexible language :-)
Well done, you managed to sort that muddle out!
Frankreich = France = Frankrike
in Swedish
Österreich = Austria = Österrike in Swedish
Sweden = Sverige, which means Svea rike, rike is kind of corresponding to Reich
I would be thrilled to call it the Schwedenreich from now on :D
@@HappyBeezerStudios In the olden days Sweden used to be refered to as "Svíþjóð". "Sví" after the Svear people. "þjóð" meaning "nation". The same origin as "Deutsch" (of the people).
@@marna_li you're gonna have to go real far back for that name, like viking age and before back. also it kinda only is about a small part of what is sweden (the southern lands were more danish at the time and the north was sapmi)
Schweden ist ein Reich. Norwegen ist reich.
A note on the Byzantine Empire competing for the title of successor to Rome [3:30]: It ceased to exist in in 1453, when the Ottomans conquered Constantinople.
At 1:58 I thought you were about to say "an area ruled by a moron"...
As a German, I've learned a deeper meaning of this word from this video
Yes France is called frankreich in german but i think its because it comes from the germanic tribe "franken" that conquered france, latinised over time and became france. the germans just kept the name frankreich because it was once the reich of the franks. Also i think that empire is the most accurate translation of reich. In austria (where i live lol) teachers use the words englisches reich and russisches reich for the english and the russian empires.
Yes, once it was called Frankreich (Frankenreich, Reich of the Franks), nobody bothered to rename it after it became a republik. BTW Österreich is, I think, just the Eastern Reich or Reich of the East.
There's a lot more to it as Franks as a tribe were divided in German speaking Franken and actual French speaking people.
@@Ratzfourtyfour österreich quite literally translates to "the realm in the east"
Outstanding job as always.
Extra credit for your German pronunciation, especially of the r, ch and, a sound that English native speakers seem to be able to get right, the long ö.
E. g. in "Römisches Reich"
Ü in Württemberg. A sound which doesn't even exist in spoken English.
france isnt a "royal" realm now but it was when it was named in german. so, reich does actually mean realm.
A quick correction. The Nazis didn't originate the "First, Second, and third Reich" terminology. That comes from a 1923 book by Arthur Moeller van den Bruck called "Das Dritte Reich" which the nazis loved.
In the book the first and second Reichs are the HRE and Imperial Germany but the 3rd Reich is an idealized and moral concept for what Germany could be and should strive to be. But not actually a political manifesto for a real State.
The Nazis took this concept and ran with it trying to connect ideal Germany with Nazi Germany.
We have a similar concept with "The Fourth Reich" being a resurgent and powerful Germany dominated Europe, which does have negative connotations because of the Nazis.
In the 1920s, "Empire" in general and *Reich* specifically didn't have negative connections like they do now.
Very interesting and elaborately worked out. There's even some facts I didn't know
Immer wieder schön etwas zu lernen, was mir im Geschichts-Unterricht schon mehr oder weniger beigebracht wurde.
Danke dafür!
Yay I found your channel again. I stumbled upon your channel some years ago but lost track of it and couldn't remember what it was called.
Interestingly, though, officially the "Weimar Republic" (and its constitution) were in effect from August 1919 up until May 1945. But practically the Nazis changed the constitution in 1933/34 so drastically, that it wasn't.
No. This video was about wording or labels, and something like the Weimar Republic never existed. People today called it this way, or maybe the term "Weimarer Verfassung" was already used in that time, but the official name, appearing on the document was just "Die Verfassung des Deutschen Reichs".
It's like talking about the Kyoto-Protocol and things like that. It's a simplification for everyday use, not an official label.
@@holger_p Yes - but technically the constitution of 1919 stayed in place until 1945 - even if she had no political importance since 1933/34.
@@NicolaW72 Once again, the topic was naming the constitution, not their validity.
You invented an other name "constitution of 1919" and it's generally understood.
To put it short and simple: This is an English problem.
No other language mixes things up like the English. No other Germanic language has any problem in this terminology.
Reich is hard to translate to non-Germanic languages. English is Germanic but it is heavily mixed with French.
some people go as far as to say that English is not really Germanic anymore, since it has lost a lot of Germanic traits. Old English, however, is actually very close to German in terms of grammar and pronounciation (although spelling is quite different)
@@nugzarmikeladze Correct, but you'd think it would enrich (!) the language.
Dutch has had the same French/Latin influence, but we kept both words.
@@bumpsy The entire structure of the language is Germanic, how sentences are build up, and almost all expressions, and all basic words.
Only the garlands (Dutch: guirlandes/slingers) on the Christmas tree are (damaged) French.
So we Dutch have both, flensje AND crêpe.
@@dutchman7623 but French and Latin influenced English much stronger than Dutch. and English started to forget their own Germanic words. England had a French speaking ruling class for several centuries after Norman conquest of 1066.
Bible prophecy in Book of Daniel says that there will be only 4 great empires, Rome being the last. Doesn't say that when Rome falls the world will end. Just that no other empire will rule all of what is now Europe ( the feet and toes of part clay, part iron in the statute with gold head and silver chest) Charlemagne tried and failed, likewise Napoleon, likewise Hilter.
Excellent, clear and concise explanation of a confusing topic. Thank you.
Great explanation! Thanks for the upload!
Cool to see that the German language is a fan of the Hearts of Iron series 2:08
Can't believe they named a country after a HOI mod
The prophecy of Daniel also refer to distinctive characteristics of each of the kingdoms, which helps identification.
... and demonstrates (among other hints) that it was written after the time most prophesies were supposed to describe (all the accurate ones).
00:11 Aaaaand that's a like!
1:29 France were a kingdom for 90% of it's history, the republic experiment is quite recent
(which failed 5 times already)
I would translate "Reich" with "Reach" (Reichweite). Both, in case of an Empire and Republic, it's how far the territory reaches or the power of the monarch/populus reaches.
Österreich the smallest Reich and the only one left alive even tow we are a republic now we still kept the crown of the HRE and some buyses that put K and K in ther name.
Frankreich in a Reich, which is a republic, too.
@@HalfEye79 But not in its own language.
You were supposed to keep the imperial regalia safe when the French invaded in the 18th century. You just never gave them back.
France used to be a realm. Germans just did not bother to come up with a new Name. (propably because so many of their revolutions resulted in an Emperor being crowned) As a German I would not say that France qualifies as a Reich.
A countys name not always reflects its properties.
I've got to admit, you Sir is amazing in your contents especially your facial reactions every single time, keep up sir, I'm just going to subscribe.
thank you for the explanation. i've been wondering about this for years.
Fantastic video, everything very clear. Thank you for the lessons.
Hi Andrew will you be doing anymore destination videos again?...i really enjoyed these .
Watch this space...
Thanks! Excellent explanation, but one wouldn't expect less from you! 10/10!
It's cool how people speaking German, Afrikaans and Dutch can half understand each other
THIS IS THE FIRST video i have watched on this channel then watched 15 more videos then subscribed.
In Norway, we have an equivalent of Reich, "Rike".
Though Norwegian is a Germanic language, so that is probably why.
Here is my rough translation (with some help from Google Translate of what the Norwegian Wikipedia site says:
is used as a term for a state, also about a royal or imperial power in itself.
In a broader and transferred sense, it is also used in poetic contexts about a piece of land, for example about "the kingdom of God" ("Guds Rike" in Norwegian) and so on.
It also mentions sme pleces for some examples where the norwegian word "Rike" is used inside the word:
romeriket (Roman Empire), Det Osmanske Rike (The Ottoman Empire), det tysk-romerske rike (the German-Roman Empire), det tyske riket (the German Empire), and kongeriket Norge (Kingdom of Norway)
You've given me the prize of knowledge and that's more valuable than anything I could have asked for!
Yes I had always wondered about that. Good job !
I'd reckon Reich would be close estimated as a noun for the english word "reach" (german "reichen") as it describes the reach of power of a certain central instance (king/emperor) for the lands around.
Outside of the UK though most modern English speakers would not know that meaning of reach very well though these days.
So I agree whilst also can see why a translation to reach could be problematic.
This is something I have *always* wondered about. Exactly what I was looking for.
for a german i have to say this was really interesting and your pronunciation is damn good. thank you
I was just wondering this. Thanks!
0:56 - Could it not be translated as "state", or "nation-state"? "The German State"?
That would seem to kind of encompass {kingdom, empire, realm, domain}. But I guess maybe those words have more of a geographic connotation?
edit:
Oh, never mind. I hear it now. You said it:
" a _significantly large_ *state* with _definite borders_ "
Thanks. That was a very interesting video. The bit on Daniel's prophesies however, left out the 5th empire made up of fragments of the 4th kingdom (Roman Empire) and weaker nations as symbolised in the feet of iron and clay in the Statue vision. Therefore the end of the Roman empire was not the sign of the end of the world but the end of this 5th period is to be the last before the messiah comes to replace it.
7:07-7:36
The prize is the knowledge obtained. Thank you!
Incredibly helpful video!!! Thank you!!!
Your pronunciation of German words is exquisite.
Fantastic! Always wondered
Very informative and quite well presented.
Enlightening, and you are very entertaining.
Good video. Thank you. Quite informative
Great Explanation - Thank-you !!!
Excellent video. Thanks.
Very well translated, and explained.
Very informative , Thank you .
I do think the "realm" translation is correct, the name "Frankreich" is way older than the modern republic. You wouldn't call other modern countries a "Reich".
When was the Roman Empire "officially" dissolved and in what document(s)?
6th August 1806, with the abdication of Emperor Francis II. In doing so, he released the Electors, Princes and Imperial Estates from their obligations to the Crown, and so dissolved the Holy Roman Empire for good.
Excellent creator. Well done!
3:35 Roman C was not soft, so caesar was pronounced kaesar which is very close to the German kaisar after all, Thx for that video though, i've learned stuff!
"realm" is a great translation of "reich", notwithstanding your objection that rea-lm is roy-al with the connotation of king, answering your objection in the German by adding the prefix "könig" when specifically the realm is of a king, or a kingdom, which you know whilst still objecting.
I love your channel keep up the great stuff!!!!!!
I mean...from the way you described it it seems to me like “reich” could easily be literally translated as “country” or “nation”. Or perhaps more broadly, “jurisdiction area”. Am I wrong?
5:55 Short version