The idea of original sin requires many different assumptions concerning the theology of sin. It is difficult to fit it into the biblical narrative. The Bible picture is much simpler. The first human beings disobeyed God, thus bringing sin into the world. Their sin is representative of all the sins from that time onwards, from theft to genocide. As a result of the first sin, the world changed to bring death for mankind. Jesus died to remove the curse of death, which he overcame when he rose from the dead.
The last few minutes of your video SEEM to be implying a Trinitarian point of view? Are you saying that Jesus is both man and God? Please clarify what you mean by “God with us.” Also clarify your understanding of John 1:14 . . did God come in flesh or did Jesus come in flesh?
The presenter considers that the doctrine of the Trinity is untrue. Jesus is entirely man, but he is the Son of God, and Luke 1:35 explains that it is the virgin birth that makes him the Son of God - he has no human father, and no Father other than God. However, Jesus shows what God is like more closely than any other being. This is the point of his being the Son of God. When we look at Jesus we see an image of God (2 Corinthians 4:4; Hebrews 1:3; John 14:9). The image, thought, is different from the substance. Jesus is the image of God, but is not therefore God. John 1 is about the Word of God. In the Old Testament the Word of God is whatever means God uses to express himself. Just as you might think of a word, or speak it, or write it down, God expresses his word in many different ways. The Bible speaks of the word as expressed in creation (Psalm 33:6-9), expressed in writing as the scripture (many times in Psalm 119), expressed to prophets (eg Jeremiah 2:1) and even in an angel (Zechariah 1:7,9). Jesus is the word expressed in flesh (John 1:14 - not a direct quotation but this is what the passage is about). God's word has been active since the beginning, but now God has expressed his word through his Son, the greatest possible expression of God's word. So while Jesus is a man, he is a special man, being born of a virgin mother and the power of God. He shows us what God is like, but he is not himself God. There are a pair of videos that attempt to explain this: th-cam.com/video/eth8qoG5zRM/w-d-xo.html th-cam.com/video/teDh9hi_C8w/w-d-xo.html The first of these tries to show how God expresses himself through angels, and then the same principles are seen when God expresses himself through Jesus Christ (only Jesus does it better).
@LuisPerez-c3f Jesus is the Son of God from his birth (or conception?). Luke 1:35 explains why Jesus is called the Son of God - it is because he was born of a virgin and had no father other than God. Because Jesus is the Son of God he is closer to God than any other human being. It is not clear how Jesus managed to defeat temptation, but being very close to God must have helped, at the very least. I do not think that Jesus was sinless by nature; we know that Jesus was tempted in the same way that we are (Hebrews 4:15), which means that he was genuinely tempted. He overcame that temptation - he was obedient to God. Being close to God would have been very important here, and being the Son of God would have helped greatly. This, however, is a line of approach that is not directly stated in Scripture; at the best it is hinted at. I would not, therefore, insist on it. It does, however, seem a likely inference from what we know.
@LuisPerez-c3f I think that I follow your reasoning. Jesus is called the Son of God, and Luke 1:35 says that he is called this because he had no human father. However, you are correct to say that this is not a statement of the nature of Jesus. Jesus was, by nature, a man (1 Timothy 2:5). However, he would seem to be Son of God in a stronger sense than others who were also given that title. Jesus was closer to God than any other human being. Maybe this was how he managed to remain sinless. He himself said that he did only what he saw the Father do (John 5:19,30). I suspect that the description of Jesus as the Son of God is partly, at least, about the closeness he had with his Father.
@@GospelOnlineUK God so loved the world that he GAVE His Only Begotten Son” therefore he was his son BEFORE he came to this world. Many scriptures in the Old Testament and statements fromJesus himself that show he came from his very being of his father I think it’s demonstrated in genesis when Eve was taken from Adam. Thank you.
@@kathy4798 This reasoning depends on two assumptions. The first of these is that God gave his Son at the time of Jesus' birth. It seems more likely to me that God gave Jesus for the sins of mankind when he allowed him to be crucified. Of course, Jesus had existed for more than 30 years before this. The other assumption is that one cannot make something and give it at the same time. I can make something for my children and give it to them as it is made. Jesus was given for the sins of mankind. He was given at the cross, when he died for our sins. He came from the Father in the sense that God sent him, but this does not require that he existed before he was born any more than the fact that God sent prophets shows that they existed before they were born. The obvious example of this is John the baptist (John 1:6 which tells us that John was sent from God).
Jesus born of a virgin is without the original sin of Adam. Jesus is the only human without sin.
The idea of original sin requires many different assumptions concerning the theology of sin. It is difficult to fit it into the biblical narrative.
The Bible picture is much simpler. The first human beings disobeyed God, thus bringing sin into the world. Their sin is representative of all the sins from that time onwards, from theft to genocide. As a result of the first sin, the world changed to bring death for mankind. Jesus died to remove the curse of death, which he overcame when he rose from the dead.
The last few minutes of your video SEEM to be implying a Trinitarian point of view? Are you saying that Jesus is both man and God? Please clarify what you mean by “God with us.”
Also clarify your understanding of John 1:14 . . did God come in flesh or did Jesus come in flesh?
The presenter considers that the doctrine of the Trinity is untrue. Jesus is entirely man, but he is the Son of God, and Luke 1:35 explains that it is the virgin birth that makes him the Son of God - he has no human father, and no Father other than God.
However, Jesus shows what God is like more closely than any other being. This is the point of his being the Son of God. When we look at Jesus we see an image of God (2 Corinthians 4:4; Hebrews 1:3; John 14:9). The image, thought, is different from the substance. Jesus is the image of God, but is not therefore God.
John 1 is about the Word of God. In the Old Testament the Word of God is whatever means God uses to express himself. Just as you might think of a word, or speak it, or write it down, God expresses his word in many different ways. The Bible speaks of the word as expressed in creation (Psalm 33:6-9), expressed in writing as the scripture (many times in Psalm 119), expressed to prophets (eg Jeremiah 2:1) and even in an angel (Zechariah 1:7,9). Jesus is the word expressed in flesh (John 1:14 - not a direct quotation but this is what the passage is about). God's word has been active since the beginning, but now God has expressed his word through his Son, the greatest possible expression of God's word.
So while Jesus is a man, he is a special man, being born of a virgin mother and the power of God. He shows us what God is like, but he is not himself God.
There are a pair of videos that attempt to explain this:
th-cam.com/video/eth8qoG5zRM/w-d-xo.html
th-cam.com/video/teDh9hi_C8w/w-d-xo.html
The first of these tries to show how God expresses himself through angels, and then the same principles are seen when God expresses himself through Jesus Christ (only Jesus does it better).
@LuisPerez-c3f Jesus is the Son of God from his birth (or conception?). Luke 1:35 explains why Jesus is called the Son of God - it is because he was born of a virgin and had no father other than God.
Because Jesus is the Son of God he is closer to God than any other human being. It is not clear how Jesus managed to defeat temptation, but being very close to God must have helped, at the very least.
I do not think that Jesus was sinless by nature; we know that Jesus was tempted in the same way that we are (Hebrews 4:15), which means that he was genuinely tempted. He overcame that temptation - he was obedient to God. Being close to God would have been very important here, and being the Son of God would have helped greatly. This, however, is a line of approach that is not directly stated in Scripture; at the best it is hinted at. I would not, therefore, insist on it. It does, however, seem a likely inference from what we know.
@LuisPerez-c3f I think that I follow your reasoning.
Jesus is called the Son of God, and Luke 1:35 says that he is called this because he had no human father.
However, you are correct to say that this is not a statement of the nature of Jesus. Jesus was, by nature, a man (1 Timothy 2:5).
However, he would seem to be Son of God in a stronger sense than others who were also given that title. Jesus was closer to God than any other human being. Maybe this was how he managed to remain sinless. He himself said that he did only what he saw the Father do (John 5:19,30). I suspect that the description of Jesus as the Son of God is partly, at least, about the closeness he had with his Father.
@@GospelOnlineUK
God so loved the world that he GAVE His Only Begotten Son” therefore he was his son BEFORE he came to this world. Many scriptures in the Old Testament and statements fromJesus himself that show he came from his very being of his father I think it’s demonstrated in genesis when Eve was taken from Adam. Thank you.
@@kathy4798 This reasoning depends on two assumptions.
The first of these is that God gave his Son at the time of Jesus' birth. It seems more likely to me that God gave Jesus for the sins of mankind when he allowed him to be crucified. Of course, Jesus had existed for more than 30 years before this.
The other assumption is that one cannot make something and give it at the same time. I can make something for my children and give it to them as it is made.
Jesus was given for the sins of mankind. He was given at the cross, when he died for our sins. He came from the Father in the sense that God sent him, but this does not require that he existed before he was born any more than the fact that God sent prophets shows that they existed before they were born. The obvious example of this is John the baptist (John 1:6 which tells us that John was sent from God).