Doora vJokerv The reason why sin(pi) = 0 is because you normally use the unit Radian for angles. One radian is the angle that makes the arc length of a circle have the same length as the radius of that circle - this would be approximately 57.3° if you use degrees. This means that an angle that is exactly half the circle will be slightly more than 3 radians - in fact, it is exactly Pi radians. This is the same as 180°, which also has the sine value 0. It is easy to convert from degrees to radians - simply multiply the degrees by the fraction pi/180.
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You're the greatest teacher I've ever had on TH-cam. Thank you Sir! :)
I must say that you have made math incredibly easy to grasp and understand by your tutorials :)
I was stuck at a same example you gave and tmw is my mid. thank you very much!!
Thank You so much!
You are a great teacher
It would be interesting to know where one would use such equations in real life. Brilliant explanation. Thanks!
never
@@nickbogey1112 literally all the time. Diff eq is the most important math in real life.
@@joshdoeseverything4575 i went to the grocery store and didnt need to know it
thank you, this helped alot
So Concise. Thank you.
Amazing video, thank you sir.
Doora vJokerv The reason why sin(pi) = 0 is because you normally use the unit Radian for angles.
One radian is the angle that makes the arc length of a circle have the same length as the radius of that circle - this would be approximately 57.3° if you use degrees.
This means that an angle that is exactly half the circle will be slightly more than 3 radians - in fact, it is exactly Pi radians.
This is the same as 180°, which also has the sine value 0.
It is easy to convert from degrees to radians - simply multiply the degrees by the fraction pi/180.
+Laurelindo THEN WHY COS(180) IS NOT EQUAL TO ZERO
awesome video sir! Thank you!
This definement is excellency
In your second example, you typed "IVP" as part of the question. Did you mean "BVP"?
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could you post all the links in your info box, of the related videos?
if the roots are -1, 1 then its C1 e^-x + C2 e^x for the gen solution ( its highlighted ) solved myself and checked wolfram to be sure
Thanks a lot sir.
How to solve general solution of diffrential equation for diffrent diffrent cconditions
Can explain the difference between ivp and bvp?
thanks
Is the question is wrong? initial value problem or boundary value problem...
thank u so much :)
Very nice sir
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Nice quote!
in 7:44 how could sin(pi) is equal to zero ???
refer back to the unit circle and check the value of sin at 180
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