วีดีโอ

really interesting question in regards to the different areas/times where the substrate influence occurred, especially with the idea of a very anicent ~NEast Caucasian influence and later influence between PIE-NW Caucasian coming possibly from an intermediate language; but seems odd that they're not considering the idea that the influence could come from Early European Farmers speaking related Caucasian-like languages. I've seen the shared word for sheep between Germanic and NWC used as evidence for an EEF/LBK substrate on specifically Germanic or maybe broadly on the NW 'core' of Beaker-like IE languages

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The field of historical linguistics needs more research in several important areas. We need better theories and scientific principles to understand patterns in contact-induced syntactic typology and phonology. We also need a comprehensive theory of how contact affects morphological changes and their typological implications. The work by Kaufman and Thomason on contact-induced language change is foundational but needs further development. We should integrate more precise methods for identifying and analyzing these changes and explore the broader socio-historical contexts that enable them. This will help us understand better how languages evolve through contact. By addressing these key tasks, we can unravel with greater confidence how languages are interlinked by their communities of speakers and how these communities interact with other groups. This work can be enriched with archaeology, socio-economic and forensic evidence about relationships within and between communities, and archeogenetics by analyzing DNA. We can then understand how Basque has Egyptian loan words and how PIE interrelates with NW Caucasian, PU, PA, how to understand, for example "transeurasiatic", ablaut in P-Kartvelian and PIE, socio-historical processes that allow for Wanderworts: Seven, Wine, taxi. AI could also be useful for aggregating linguistic evidence into a theory that concords with that extensive body of evidence.

I'm wondering - the words you give from. Matosevic's are all agricultural style words, goat, wool, grain, flour, horse are these like Potato and Train, loan words that came with the innovation ?? .Also - Kurdish in an ergative Indo-European language, but it exists in the same geographical area as ergative non-IndoEuropean Hurrian. I'm wondering if ergativity isn't base Proto-IndoEuropean, but a Caucasian element to the cocktail, and some languages got more dollops of Caucasian at more times than others? And if you opt for the Anatolian pre-proto-IndoEuropean theory, could there have been a first period of two way influence very early in Anatolia, then a second in the Yamnaya era in the steppe??

As a student of Kartvel and Adyghe, as well as Basque, Arabic and a handful of IE tongues, I know that loanwords do not require direct contact, even taking centuries to be transmitted. Eg, Persian Khane, room, is found ftom the Balkans through to the Malay Archipelago. ( balcony, han, &c) Fascinating stuff, i have been so for two thirds of a century

Of course, neighbours

I thought I remembered a hypothetical intermediate population having been surprisingly detected in the new genetic papers. Seems like a lot of the pieces of the puzzle from different lines of evidence are fitting.

I have seen the film "Illyricum" . And I have privilege to know prof. Ranko Matasović from days when I was a student of History and Slavistics at University of Zagreb. Also, I have a copy of book "Ancient languages of the Balkans" by prof. Radoslav Katičić. My final thesis at the History department was about origin of Etruscans. About Illyrian language.... Roman writers were making distinctions between "Illyrii propriae dicti" and other nations of "Illyricum" in wider sense, placing "Illyrii propriae dicti" in area of mostly modern Montenegro (Crna Gora = Black Mountain) and to the southernmost part of modern Croatia, making the river Neretva as most northern border of their influence; and to the south only small part of north of modern Albania. Why was that so, and why Romans didn't consider entire area of modern Albania as "Illyricum in sensu stricto", I dont know. It could be that Romans named as "Illyricum propriae dicti" exclusively only that area where specific "Illyrian kingdom" as dynastic tribal state was developed. Romans have entered into conflict with Illyrian kingdom during the 3rd and 2nd century BC, especially because of Illyrian piracy on Adriatic. Namely, illyrians were attacking and plundering ships belonging to the Greek colonies as, for example, those of Issa (modern day island Vis). An arrogant answer received from Illyrian queen Teuta and especially the killing of official Roman envoys were the cause of the war in 229/228 BC. Not only that: after the initial defeat by Romans, Illyrian kingdom started to making anti-Roman alliance with Macedonians during the Second Punic war (218-201), when Hannibal of Carthage had his campaign in Italy (Hannibal ante portas!). This was the cause of final destruction of "Illyrian kingdom"; Ardieii, the leading tribe was resettled from coast and forced to interior. Although, Greeks were using name Illyris for area of modern Albania. It was tribal region with: Penestai living in north (to the east of Penestae nation), and the Taulanti were inhabitants closer to the sea coast, where Greek Doric colonies Epidamnos (Dyrrhachium, modern Albanian city Durres, in Slavic: Drač) and Apollonia were established; to the south of Taulanti were Parauaei and Chaones, already nations belonging to the ancient Epirus, although today in southern Albania.In Greek writers we can read the story how Illyrians attacked city Phoenice in territory of Chaones (in vicinity of island Corcyra /Corfu). In Greek mythology hero Kadmos and his wife Harmonia settled among Chaones. However, we dont know nothing about language of Dalmatae, who were the strongest nation in area to the north of river Neretva; they fought many wars against Romans from 2nd century BC till the last, Batonic war in years 6 to 9 AD.The province of Dalmatia was named after them. And Roman colonia Salonae (at location of modern town Solin) near city Split, was the capital of province Dalmatia. From the river Krka, the northern neighbours of Dalmatae were nation of Liburni in area where today is city Zadar (in antiquity known as Iadera and Diadora). Liburnians also hold all the islands between Zadar and peninsula of Istria. In ancient times, before 6th century BC, Liburni were known to Greeks as a skilful seamen. The only word known from Liburnian language is "Anzotica", the name of Venus/Aphrodita . In film Illyricum that name is mentioned. It is possible that words in Croatian and Serbian language: kiša (rain) and vatra (fire) have pre-Slavic origin, because other Slavic languages for "fire" have "ogień" , ogon, ogan and similar (in Croatian language also exists word "oganj" (archaic), in Kaikavian dialect: ogenj; and rain (in Croatian: kiša) in other Slavic languages is mostly as in Polish: "deszcz" (dešč/dežđ also in Kaikavian and in Slovenian) or archaism "dažd" in shtokavian ... Some linguists consider word "vatra" as derivation from Latin "atrium" with typical prothetic Slavic voice /v/; that word is attested also in Albanian and in Romanian language and what is especially interesting in language of people Lemki (Ruthenians, subdivision of Ukrainians, historical inhabitants of Carpathian mountain region on todays border between Poland and Ukraina); so called "Lemkivske vatri" manifestation (search in internet) ... As it seems, word "vatra" in Romanian has meaning not of fire as it is, but of "fireplace". Intriguing is that in ancient Iranian language of Avesta exists word "athar"; with typical Slavic prothesis /v/ + athar, this could be also source for word "vatra". Also interesting is that in Albanian language is word "mir" meaning "good"; in South Slavic and in Ukrainian "mir" means "peace", and in Russian can also have meaning "world". It would be good thing to compare the lexic (vocabulary) of Slavic languages and of Albanian language and to see all possible borrowed words.

Is there a side-by-side comparison of the proposals tying Indo-European and/or Indo-Uralic with Euskarian, pre-Greek, Northwest Caucasian, Northeast Caucasian, Burushaski, Turkic, Mongolic, etc.? Also, since you are familiar with ittite and the other Anatolian languages, do you have an opinion of the various theories identifying Etruscan as an Anatolian or other Indo-European language?

This could be the greatest discovery in the filed. Knowing what made the PIE the way it sounded and was like.

I think those cognates look very good and I'm intrigued by the barley word. There are so many unanswered questions about IE agricultural words and their distribution.

Indo Uralic is pure fantasy imo. Not only Uralic languages are grammatically extremely different they don't even originate in Europe. They originated in Siberia.

A different reconstruction of the stop system would change the reconstruction between for example greek and germanic to PIE considerably.

4:01 As a Danish speaker I noticed that article mentions Uralic-Altaic. He says Uralic-Altaic is seen as being most likely true though it hasn't been proven yet. This is so based.

My vote goes to "Caucated" instead of Caucasianized

It’s true, I’m Caucasion, Ingush, Galgha

Was beatin bout the bushes in that chat on the top right... so, now gotta watch it again from its very beginning. Thanks for the topic of today!

Lovely!

wool<>woolens ~ yok<>yakwe? I tried swapping the first two in the example in another of your videos. My mind goes to 'data' (vs clunky 'datum') Good luck! And Thanks! (for now)

It wouldn't surprise me if there indeed were older families consisting of currently reconstructed proto-languages and that most of the world's languages could be traced to a few events where language emerged. I'm not so sure it can be traced to just one Proto-Human language, but would argue that there was a pre-language era of emotive communication and a language era of our current mode of communication where language emerged I dependently in a few places. Indo-Uralic and Nostratic have been rather interesting to study, although I've never given it that much time since it's not relevant to my interests or goals, only time will tell if we're able to reconstruct such ancient proto-languages or if it all becomes lost in the statistical noise. One problem is that as you travel further back in human linguistic history the potential vocabulary shrinks dramatically making reconstruction harder and harder, maybe even to a point where word classes become close to meaningless and the vocabular consists primarily of morphemes that later become grammatical suffixes and particles. Who knows, but it can be a damn interesting "waste" of time!

Babe wake up new language just dropped.

Croats, Montenegrians, Bosnians and Serbs are Ilirian descendants.

such tenuous links. they want there to be a ubiquitous proto language but the fact is that there is no real evidence, if there were a link it's lost to time and will never be recovered. cosmopolitan daydreamers proposing stuff like this and altaic get in the way of historical linguistics.

As in Ŋan? ( Ngan) I love it when exoerts can't wrap their tongues around foreign orthographies. Hitz, word, hitz egin, speak. Northern Basque has ph, th, kh, aspirated stops. I would be more interested in comparing PIE with PNWC, its close neighbour

In kurdish karš meaninin cutting Wood or moods

Kurdish kaš or kat cut English

Fascinating

I subscribed.

Of only it had fewer characters......

$120 is a lot :(

👍👍

All these linguistic comparisons and reconstructions are commendable, but! IF we can agree that Calpeia (Gibraltar 5400BC) was an ancestor (or, in the unlikely event that she had no children, a close cousin of hers was an ancestor) of all the pre-Roman Iberian tribes, then the languages of those tribes must have derived from whatever Calpeia spoke. Calpeia’s DNA was 10% local hunter-gatherer, 90% pre-Hittite farmer from the region around Çatalhöyük, circa 7000BC. The founders of Çatalhöyük were descended from the founders of Jericho, descended from the Natufians that spilled out of Northern Africa as soon as the last glaciation subsided, and those people spoke a language that belonged, by definition, to the Afro-Asiatic family of languages, of which a sub-family are the Semitic languages, but do not include Hittite.

DIalects of the same language..The map of Thracians is not correct, the Tribali lived in Serbia....

Thank you, I really believe in this theory

there's no link to The table in the description

ΠΟΤΕ ΓΗΝΑΤΑΙ ΙΛΗΡΙΟΙ ΡΕ ΠΟΥΘΕΝΑΔΕΣ ΧΘΕΣΙΝΟΙ ΑΠΟ ΤΗΝ ΚΑΣΠΙΑ ΟΤΙ ΚΑΙ ΝΑ ΛΕΤΑΙ ΜΟΝΙΣΑΣ ΤΑ ΑΚΟΥΤΕ

How can Albanians be real Ilyrians when first record of Albanians is in 13th century and all of Ilyrians were romanised by 4th century. Ilyrians became Romans and 1700 years later Albanians appear.

One thing I don't get: you said that the vowels in PIE were just E and O, but the accusative word for wool (h2wlh1nam) has an A. What's going on? Thanks

I am a retired Professor of Sanskrit Language and Litterature from the Department of Classic Studies at the University of São Paulo _ USP , Brazil. In our classes my collegues and I lectured the Indo- European and its relation to Sanskrit.

Thanks for this. Any chance we could get a library tour of all the books you have in your library? I'd be super interested in it and I'm sure others would too.