EX02: Solved Problem: Conjugate Beam Method (beam with overhang)

แชร์
ฝัง
  • เผยแพร่เมื่อ 7 ก.พ. 2018
  • This video shows the steps for calculating slope in a beam using the Conjugate Beam Method.
    The problem and its solution were contributed by Vian Abu-Bakir. You can reach her at: www.vian.eng@gmail.com
    Or at: / @engineervian3013
    Numerous contributions of Galina Jorgic in designing and creating the video lectures and related content are gratefully acknowledged.

ความคิดเห็น • 12

  • @johnpaine7191
    @johnpaine7191 6 ปีที่แล้ว +2

    Thank you Dr. Structure, very informative especially those beginners like me... More power to you!

  • @travelvlogger8509
    @travelvlogger8509 6 ปีที่แล้ว +3

    Its amazing to see... Such a good explanation... Its understood in first attempt only... Without any doubt

  • @jenniecave2533
    @jenniecave2533 6 ปีที่แล้ว +1

    Clear Concept 👍👍 👍

  • @alanbecker4814
    @alanbecker4814 6 ปีที่แล้ว +1

    Superb work. Keep it up.. make more examples ☺☺😊😊

  • @Dipesh155
    @Dipesh155 6 ปีที่แล้ว +1

    i like this video

  • @stupidfilip23
    @stupidfilip23 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Can you make a variable rigidity question?

  • @notetaker1141
    @notetaker1141 6 ปีที่แล้ว

    does this method work for indeterminate beams?

    • @DrStructure
      @DrStructure  6 ปีที่แล้ว

      The method works for any beam. In the case of an indeterminate beam, to draw its moment diagram, we need to use a technique such as slope-deflection to determine the beam's reactions. Once the reactions are determined, then we can draw the moment diagram, turn it into the M/EI diagram, and proceed as usual.

  • @Laris2725
    @Laris2725 5 ปีที่แล้ว

    how did you get 60 kN.m in the moment diagram? I kept multiplying 25x2... I feel like I'm missing something hehehe great video by the way

    • @DrStructure
      @DrStructure  5 ปีที่แล้ว

      Not quite sure what you are referring to, please elaborate and point to the specific timeframe where your question is based.

    • @Laris2725
      @Laris2725 5 ปีที่แล้ว

      At 2:10

    • @DrStructure
      @DrStructure  5 ปีที่แล้ว

      @@Laris2725 Okay, now I see what you are referring to. We can get to that peak moment value of -60 kN.m either from the left or from the right side of B.
      Going from left to right: We have a negative moment of 25 kN.m just to the right of the concentrated moment at the midpoint of Segment AB. The area under the shear diagram from that point to point B is 2(-17.5) = -35. So, the moment at the right end of that segment (at B) equals to -25 + (-35) = -60.
      Going from right to left: The moment at the right end of the beam (at point C) is zero. The area under the shear diagram from B to C is (3 m)(20 kN) = 60 kN.m, and since the moment at C must be equal to the moment at B plus the area under the shear diagram. That is,
      Mc = Mb + 60, then, Mb = Mc - 60. Or, Mb = 0 - 60 = -60 kN.m