This is by far best explanation ever on Multi-stage RI Model. To recap for a 4 year scenario valuation the generic formula would be V0 = B0 + RI/(1+r) + RI2/(1+r)^2 + (RI3 + TV)/(1+r)^3 where TV= RI4/(1+r-ω) no matter what the omega value from 0 to 1.
Amazing! I have been struggling with the Terminal value calculation and its variations for the RI model. TH-cam was my last resort and I found you. Thank you so much.
I was just showing that you could either: 1) discount the $2.50 back by 4 years, OR 2) discount $2.50 back by 1 year (to Year 3), then discount it back 3 years to Year 0. The textbook uses Method 2 in their workings, but I personally prefer Method 1.
bro has a special skill of making things easier!! thanks alot fabian please continue to make these videos
This is by far best explanation ever on Multi-stage RI Model. To recap for a 4 year scenario valuation the generic formula would be V0 = B0 + RI/(1+r) + RI2/(1+r)^2 + (RI3 + TV)/(1+r)^3 where TV= RI4/(1+r-ω) no matter what the omega value from 0 to 1.
You got it! 👏
Amazing! I have been struggling with the Terminal value calculation and its variations for the RI model. TH-cam was my last resort and I found you. Thank you so much.
You're welcome!
Very well explained. Thanks for this.
Very helpful, thanks!
Glad it was helpful!
Thank you!
nice tutorial thanks
Is this formula correct?
P/B3=(ROE-g)/(r-g)
TV3=P3-B3=B3(P/B3-1)=B3((ROE-g)/(r-g)-1)=B3(ROE-r)/(r-g)=RI4/(r-g)
→TV3=RI4/(r-g) or TVt=RIt+1/(r-g)
why did you discount terminal value value twice ? when w=0.
I was just showing that you could either:
1) discount the $2.50 back by 4 years, OR
2) discount $2.50 back by 1 year (to Year 3), then discount it back 3 years to Year 0.
The textbook uses Method 2 in their workings, but I personally prefer Method 1.