Are Tongues in the Bible always a Known Language? Also: Is Gotquestions.org Anti-Free Grace?

Are Tongues in the Bible always a Known Language? Also: Is Gotquestions.org Anti-Free Grace?
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Welcome to the Grace in Focus radio / podcast. Today, Bob Wilkin and Mike Lii are answering a question about speaking in tongues. When this phenomena is mentioned in the Bible, did it always happen in a known language? Is this from God or from Satan? Please listen for some interesting Biblical discussion regarding this subject!
Speaking, Tongues, Language, Interpreter, Interpretation, Sign Gift
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[@IL-948]

I really appreciate your encouragement to be discerning about all teachings, including those of GES.
Now these people were more noble-minded than those in Thessalonica, for they received the word with great eagerness, examining the Scriptures daily to see whether these things were so. (Acts 17:11)

[@AprilDawnKJV]

Got questions is fully* Calvinist as they state that on their faith statement.

[@mattmsharp44]

I’ve had conversations with Muslims who claim to speak in tongues as well.

[@graftme3168]

Paul wrote about praying in tongues and said that nobody can understand except God. So, apparently speaking in tongues is not always a known language. People on both sides of this issue always seem to ignore some passages to promote their own views. I think there is a middle ground that neither side is willing to look into. Yes. There are a lot of fakes. That doesn't mean tongues is obsolete. I think most westerners don't understand the need for the gift of tongues today. I have absolutely no doubt that the Spirit gives the gift of tongues still today. I wish people were more careful about what they say about tongues. Would you joke like that about the other gifts?

[@Liminalplace1]

Gee..a bit of ignorance here.
This question is fully answered by the scholars Dr.Gordon Fee and Dr Craig Keener.
Acts 2:4 explains what tounges is. "spoke..as the Spirit gave utterance"
At Pentecost the Spirit gave utterance in various known languages...in Acts 8, 10 & 19 no language is evident and neither in 1 Corinthians 14.
The essential thing is that the Spirit gives the utterance... In whatever form.
Using the idea of an actual language as a test just presupposes criteria that scripture doesnt support. In contrast to 1 John 4:1-3 which is the scriptural criteria .
Lets keep to the Scriptures

[@jflangerii]

Could’ve bought a Honda should’ve bought a Kia supercalifragilisticexpialidocious