I started to wonder if this type of speaking was more of a casualization of the language about halfway through and right in the end you said exactly that, neat. Excellent demonstration, thank you!
I'm not sure I understand how this occurs in individual words. I can't imagine any context where someone would say "natural" with a /t/ + /j/, so isn't /ʧ/ just part of the normal pronunciation? Is it somehow related to morpheme boundaries? Like, "nat-" is a morpheme, and combined with "-ural", it creates the /ʧ/ sound? (I know of some words derived from "natural", like "natty" [colloquial, bodybuilding term], and in that case, you can clearly hear the /t/, but I don't know... I still find it hard to wrap my head around; I must be thinking about it the wrong way.) Or is it an etymological thing? Other languages also have the word "nature", like the Polish "natura" [naˈtura]... so is that why it's considered palatalised? Because the word has historically been pronounced with a /t/?
Thank you for your comments. 1. The situation you’re asking about relates to a part of linguistics that looks at how words are pronounced in real speech, rather than how they are listed in a dictionary. This area of study is called phonology, which is different from phonetics. It focuses on how sounds change when people speak naturally in conversations, where sounds can affect each other. 2. Palatalization is a change that can happen when people speak quickly or informally, especially when words are not emphasized. In more formal speaking situations, or among highly educated people, Americans usually don’t use palatalization.
Excellent question! Standard American pronunciation does not palatalize alveolar sounds t, d, n, s, and z. This phenomenon is called Yod dropping. I have a video on this: th-cam.com/video/pbJ_HrNUDgQ/w-d-xo.html&pp=ygUMeW9kIGRyb3BwaW5n
@@NanheeByrnesPhDThis is confusing. The topic of this very video is palatalization of t, d, s, and z in Standard American English. Clearly it can at least under certain circumstances be palatalized. When does yod-dropping occur then and when does it not?
Excellent observation! In fast speech, "grocery" becomes a two-syllable word, with the middle vowel being elided (called elision). In this situation, the palatal "r" morphs "s" to "sh."
Swedes pronounce "rs" as a "sh" ( thorsdag = toshda, "Gunnarson" = gunnashon, etc.). Is it the same phenomenon? Is it independent of the language even? Btw., what area of scholarship this belongs to? I find this very interesting.... is it linguistics, phonetics, something else?
I started to wonder if this type of speaking was more of a casualization of the language about halfway through and right in the end you said exactly that, neat. Excellent demonstration, thank you!
King. Bless your heart. No joke made my day. This was very informative btw. I love it!
Thanks
Came here to find out why d sounds like ja in drip to help.my 6 yr old but I'm not sure if this is why or don't
It is due to palatalization: alveolar d assimilates to j because of palatal r
I'm not sure I understand how this occurs in individual words. I can't imagine any context where someone would say "natural" with a /t/ + /j/, so isn't /ʧ/ just part of the normal pronunciation? Is it somehow related to morpheme boundaries? Like, "nat-" is a morpheme, and combined with "-ural", it creates the /ʧ/ sound? (I know of some words derived from "natural", like "natty" [colloquial, bodybuilding term], and in that case, you can clearly hear the /t/, but I don't know... I still find it hard to wrap my head around; I must be thinking about it the wrong way.) Or is it an etymological thing? Other languages also have the word "nature", like the Polish "natura" [naˈtura]... so is that why it's considered palatalised? Because the word has historically been pronounced with a /t/?
Thank you for your comments.
1. The situation you’re asking about relates to a part of linguistics that looks at how words are pronounced in real speech, rather than how they are listed in a dictionary. This area of study is called phonology, which is different from phonetics. It focuses on how sounds change when people speak naturally in conversations, where sounds can affect each other.
2. Palatalization is a change that can happen when people speak quickly or informally, especially when words are not emphasized. In more formal speaking situations, or among highly educated people, Americans usually don’t use palatalization.
Wow😍
How would we palatalize: tune and dew?
Excellent question! Standard American pronunciation does not palatalize alveolar sounds t, d, n, s, and z. This phenomenon is called Yod dropping. I have a video on this: th-cam.com/video/pbJ_HrNUDgQ/w-d-xo.html&pp=ygUMeW9kIGRyb3BwaW5n
@@NanheeByrnesPhDThis is confusing. The topic of this very video is palatalization of t, d, s, and z in Standard American English. Clearly it can at least under certain circumstances be palatalized. When does yod-dropping occur then and when does it not?
@@waynehamilton6781 palatalization is a feature of connected speech
🙏🏻🙏🏻🙏🏻🙏🏻🙏🏻
How about "groceries" becoming "grosheries"? There's no j there?
Excellent observation! In fast speech, "grocery" becomes a two-syllable word, with the middle vowel being elided (called elision). In this situation, the palatal "r" morphs "s" to "sh."
Swedes pronounce "rs" as a "sh" ( thorsdag = toshda, "Gunnarson" = gunnashon, etc.). Is it the same phenomenon? Is it independent of the language even?
Btw., what area of scholarship this belongs to? I find this very interesting.... is it linguistics, phonetics, something else?
A lot of people say "assoshiate" instead of "associate" - but not everyone. Is it palatilisation as well? No j or r there...
i only have /t/ and /d/ + /j/ turning into /ʧ/ and /ʤ/. i dont have /s/ and /z/ + /j/ turning into /ʃ/ and /ʒ/
Interesting, do you not say 'mission' and 'vision' as if they were 'mishen' and 'vizhen' then?