Wow thanks for being so detailed and going step by step i was able to read my Bible and match it to what you taught me and what the lord reveled ti me. God bless you! The lord revealed to me that Jesus had to sacrificed his blood in the tabernacle but i didn’t understand until now.
This was good. I never read or thought about much of what Jesus was rectifying in the heavenly realm. I always looked at the veil that he tore for us. Great study!
with your explanation, it seems that after resurrection he went to heaven then he came back again to meet his disciples again and stay for another 40 days. then he went up again to heaven on the ascension. so in the last days, that would be 3rd coming and not 2nd coming.
I have yet to find a single scripture that states Jesus is or will ascend ONLY twice. I would appreciate a reference for this general presupposition. Also, I have not read a single scripture that states that Jesus MUST or WILL reign in the geographic earthly Jerusalem during the 1000 years mentioned in the Revelation given to John. Is this another presupposition? Is Jesus going to abdicate after the 1000 years? Jesus as recorded in the Gospels and by the Apostles Paul is reigning and has been reigning for 2000 plus years from Heaven as all power and authority is our Lords. These points I really seek to reconcile as a longtime believer yet new to reading the word of God for myself. Any assistance would be helpful.
@@houseonthehill8485 This may or may not help…but Jesus came once when he was born to Mary. He ascended once, 40 days after his death. After his Crucifixion (Fri) he was entombed on the Sabbath (Sat) - hence he literally rested on the Sabbath - and he rose early Sun morning and descended into Hell. He returned from Hell to Earth on that Sunday. He hangs around until the ascension (the first) where he seats at the right hand of the Father. That is “where” he is now. He will come again at some time in the future. This is the second coming. It will be the last. He will judge us all (living and dead) and restore heaven to earth (a new Eden) which will last eternally. So he comes twice only, and today we live at a time in between those two comings.
Incorrect. The cherubs are. They surround the very throne of God; and it was of them was Satan who is the greatest of all angels and created beings (Ezekiel 1:5, 28:11-15; Rev. 4:6-8). Thanks for watching. Btw, be more restrained in your quickness to correct. Thank for watching and keep studying with me!
You went off the verse about clinging to me! I’ve heard this before that Jesus took his blood to heaven? Blood can not enter heaven! 1corin15:50 So Jesus went to heaven then came back for 40 days! I understand it that by him shedding blood here is the reason he entered heaven! He was the sacrifice! Him not being held back meant he had to appear to others! This always gets misconstrued!
The confusion is not mine. Please study Hebrews 9:11-12 and 24. Study closely that Christ entered the Holy Place of heaven (not made with hands) and verse 12 says through His OWN BLOOD. Your quotation from 1 Cor. 15 is taken out of context. There Paul is talking about the need of believers to take on new glorified bodies. And just for a trivial note for YOU... There is NO PLACE in Scripture where it ever said that Enoch or Elijah were translated into glorified bodies. Yet, they were taken up into heaven. How do you account for this? Be careful when you seek to condemn without honestly listening to the exegesis of the text. But, glad you're a listener!
This seems to be the case, at least twice. The Scriptures are not clear about this issue. However, this is one instance and then of course the final ascension at the mountain. So, in the intervals when Jesus was not with His disciples during the 40 days between His resurrection and final ascension, we don't know what He did or where He was. So, I the most prudent thing is simply to say that at least twice He ascended and that's all we know. Thanks for watching. God bless.
Very interesting, brother. Never thought of that idea, that Jesus’ blood not only saved us but also “purified” the heavenly temple with His blood as He “purifies” our hearts - with His blood - in salvation. And I really appreciate you being so exegetical with your teaching, using the Greek and taking a slow, intensive, and deep study path, rather than like so many today, who simply mouth out dogma with little Biblical support, expecting us to merely swallow whatever notion they’ve come up with. I’m not saying I fully embrace your concept of Christ ascending to heaven “to cleanse the temple” that Satan sullied, but it has me intrigued. Do you have a written apologetic essay on this subject, more in-depth and xpanded that I could read? If so, I would love to give it a look. Thanks.
IF JESUS SAYS I ASCENT TO "MY FATHER N UR FATHER TO MY GOD N UR GOD". WHY IS JESUS DIFFERENT AS A SON FROM ME? AND IF JESUS IS GOD THAN WHICH OTHER GOD IS IS HE REFERRING TO? DOES A GOD HAVE A GOD?
Good question. It would not be rational to tell Mary that based on normal circumstances. The interpretation is probably wrong and is more of a question because Mary was more than likely shocked to see Jesus up in the flesh, alive. The Greek could be interpreted as " Sayings at the time of Jesus. Doubt me but touched me not yet? Indeed I am up because of the Father. Go to my brothers and tell them I am up because of my Father and your Father. Basically, Jesus was probably saying come touch me to be certain that it's me right here in front of you in the flesh.
I will not argue the interpretation, since this video clearly sets forth my position. However, your interpretation of the Greek is not accurate and totally untenable. The Greek reads: John 20:17 λέγει αὐτῇ Ἰησοῦς· μή μου ἅπτου, οὔπω γὰρ ἀναβέβηκα πρὸς τὸν πατέρα· πορεύου δὲ πρὸς τοὺς ἀδελφούς μου καὶ εἰπὲ αὐτοῖς· ἀναβαίνω πρὸς τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν. And the literal interpretation is: "Jesus says to her, "Do not touch me, for not yet have I gone up to the Father; And go to my brothers and say to them; I am going up to My Father and your Father and My God and your God." Nestle, E., Nestle, E., Aland, B., Aland, K., Karavidopoulos, J., Martini, C. M., & Metzger, B. M. (1993). The Greek New Testament (27th ed., Jn 20:17). Stuttgart: Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft.
@@LetsTalkScripture Let me try and explain my interpretation as it is not good to translate word for word. In context let me establish a few things. Mary did not expect Jesus to be alive because of the crucifixion. Also, at the time, Jesus is considered to be a regular man. No one is expecting a man to ascend(fly up) to the skies unaided. The writings may have took place centuries after the actual event which may cause actual messages lost in translation, especially when translating to English. Rational, logical interpretations would have been expected at the time of the events for who did not bear witness. μή μου ἅπτου οὔπω I would consider a clause on its own. μή is a negative particle expressing denial/disbelief translated lest, interpreted as doubt. ἅπτου the verb translated touch followed by the negative adverb οὔπω expressing have not yet touched. Interpretation would be Lest you touch me you won't be certain or Having doubt but you have not yet touched me. Verse 20 back this up. Jesus ensure to show his wounds for the disciples to believe that it is really him without a doubt. I consider γὰρ, ἀναβέβηκα πρὸς τὸν πατέρα to be a clause by itself. γὰρ is translated as indeed, used to express confirmation of something already inferred, being up as in being alive. ἀναβέβηκα translates I rise interpreted as I am up because of the obvious, being down as everyone expected death. Jesus was not down but up and good. πρὸς Before I get to this word I would want to point out that through out the scriptures involving Jesus, Jesus is always "pro" father. Ascribing everything good to the father. The Greek word is transliterated "Pros" which barely needs any translation may be translated as towards, with and advantages for. I interpret as because of "the Father" ( τὸν πατέρα). We all know who the Father is. Basically, Jesus is saying don't doubt that it is me being alive. Touch me. I am alive because of the Father.
The reason for all of this would be to prove that Jesus is of the Father, Son of God, and therefore the Jews/Israelites would follow his teachings as oppose to the Pharisees that were causing a burden to the people. This was the sign Jesus mentioned to be similar to Jona but greater.
@@dlof5892 Your Greek has much to be desired, especially with the interpretation. Nevertheless, thank you and I hope you are benefitted from the teachings.
@@LetsTalkScripture Ok. If a known teacher went to give a lecture to a group of students and says "I am reaching for the stars. Sky is the limit. Rise with the cloud and elevate. You can come with me and reach the skies." Lets say this is recorded in the school. Why would someone reading think that t is literal. Why would a none native speaker translating to another language think flying to the skies, unaided, is meant, even 2000 years from now. There would be no reason to unless there is a preconceived idea that a man of God goes to the skies after death which is subjective.
hello my brother - How can 1+1+1=1??? , if u said 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1 but How at the same time ( father ≠ son ≠ spirit ) If you say that God is composite between three, John tell u the truth 20:17 jesus him self said to Mary ,tell them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.' Focus on my father and ur father , It is clear that jesus is not the son of GOD (Jesus is the Prophet of God) - read the Quran mary chapter and u will find the truth
You have to stop making this kind of arguments brother. They aren't helping you. You compare the Almighty God to mathematics? Do you believe that Allah is one infinite God? Considering it's one of his names, you have no choice. So what do you get if you count; infinite + infinite + infinite = ? Did you even dive into the teaching of the Trinity before you asked this question?
@Let's Talk Scripture Ok, if you want to talk scripture then you should use an *actual* scripture. The verse says, "touch me not" not "stop clinging to me".
John 20:16-17 (NA28): * 17 λέγει αὐτῇ ⸆ Ἰησοῦς· ⸂μή μου ἅπτου⸃, This is what the text says. Translated, “Jesus is saying to her do not cling to me.” The verb here is “haptou”, which is a present imperative. This use of the present tense indicates continues action. This is why the verb is translated “cling”, because it rightly shows the intent of the original Greek text that the Scripture was written. Hope that helped. Thanks for watching.
@@archangeljesus4369 you said; wasn't. Wasn't is past time. So He wasn't only God in the past, He is always God. Past, present and future. So you were correct
Wow thanks for being so detailed and going step by step i was able to read my Bible and match it to what you taught me and what the lord reveled ti me. God bless you! The lord revealed to me that Jesus had to sacrificed his blood in the tabernacle but i didn’t understand until now.
Shalom brother! Thank you!
This was good. I never read or thought about much of what Jesus was rectifying in the heavenly realm. I always looked at the veil that he tore for us. Great study!
Thank you sir
Welcome
Amazing teaching and love how cheerful you were! Thank you and God bless 😃 🙏
Wow, very deep
Wonderful message. Oh what a Savior we have!
I have learned, thank you
with your explanation, it seems that after resurrection he went to heaven then he came back again to meet his disciples again and stay for another 40 days. then he went up again to heaven on the ascension. so in the last days, that would be 3rd coming and not 2nd coming.
The Second Coming is the “remaining” of Jesus when He returns. The 40 days was only temporary and sporadic.
After the Resurrection he went to hell. After Pentacost he returned to heaven. So the next coming is the 2nd.
I have yet to find a single scripture that states Jesus is or will ascend ONLY twice.
I would appreciate a reference for this general presupposition.
Also, I have not read a single scripture that states that Jesus MUST or WILL reign in the geographic earthly Jerusalem during the 1000 years mentioned in the Revelation given to John. Is this another presupposition? Is Jesus going to abdicate after the 1000 years? Jesus as recorded in the Gospels and by the Apostles Paul is reigning and has been reigning for 2000 plus years from Heaven as all power and authority is our Lords.
These points I really seek to reconcile as a longtime believer yet new to reading the word of God for myself. Any assistance would be helpful.
@@houseonthehill8485 This may or may not help…but Jesus came once when he was born to Mary. He ascended once, 40 days after his death. After his Crucifixion (Fri) he was entombed on the Sabbath (Sat) - hence he literally rested on the Sabbath - and he rose early Sun morning and descended into Hell. He returned from Hell to Earth on that Sunday. He hangs around until the ascension (the first) where he seats at the right hand of the Father. That is “where” he is now.
He will come again at some time in the future. This is the second coming. It will be the last. He will judge us all (living and dead) and restore heaven to earth (a new Eden) which will last eternally.
So he comes twice only, and today we live at a time in between those two comings.
Arch angels are the highest order! How did you miss this!
Incorrect. The cherubs are. They surround the very throne of God; and it was of them was Satan who is the greatest of all angels and created beings (Ezekiel 1:5, 28:11-15; Rev. 4:6-8). Thanks for watching. Btw, be more restrained in your quickness to correct. Thank for watching and keep studying with me!
You went off the verse about clinging to me!
I’ve heard this before that Jesus took his blood to heaven?
Blood can not enter heaven! 1corin15:50
So Jesus went to heaven then came back for 40 days!
I understand it that by him shedding blood here is the reason he entered heaven! He was the sacrifice!
Him not being held back meant he had to appear to others!
This always gets misconstrued!
The confusion is not mine. Please study Hebrews 9:11-12 and 24. Study closely that Christ entered the Holy Place of heaven (not made with hands) and verse 12 says through His OWN BLOOD. Your quotation from 1 Cor. 15 is taken out of context. There Paul is talking about the need of believers to take on new glorified bodies. And just for a trivial note for YOU... There is NO PLACE in Scripture where it ever said that Enoch or Elijah were translated into glorified bodies. Yet, they were taken up into heaven. How do you account for this? Be careful when you seek to condemn without honestly listening to the exegesis of the text. But, glad you're a listener!
So did Jesus ascend to heaven twice, right after talking to Mary and the second time when they all saw Him ascending.
This seems to be the case, at least twice. The Scriptures are not clear about this issue. However, this is one instance and then of course the final ascension at the mountain. So, in the intervals when Jesus was not with His disciples during the 40 days between His resurrection and final ascension, we don't know what He did or where He was. So, I the most prudent thing is simply to say that at least twice He ascended and that's all we know. Thanks for watching. God bless.
No .... resurrection from the dead and before going to heaven
Very interesting, brother. Never thought of that idea, that Jesus’ blood not only saved us but also “purified” the heavenly temple with His blood as He “purifies” our hearts - with His blood - in salvation.
And I really appreciate you being so exegetical with your teaching, using the Greek and taking a slow, intensive, and deep study path, rather than like so many today, who simply mouth out dogma with little Biblical support, expecting us to merely swallow whatever notion they’ve come up with.
I’m not saying I fully embrace your concept of Christ ascending to heaven “to cleanse the temple” that Satan sullied, but it has me intrigued.
Do you have a written apologetic essay on this subject, more in-depth and xpanded that I could read? If so, I would love to give it a look.
Thanks.
IF JESUS SAYS I ASCENT TO "MY FATHER N UR FATHER TO MY GOD N UR GOD". WHY IS JESUS DIFFERENT AS A SON FROM ME? AND IF JESUS IS GOD THAN WHICH OTHER GOD IS IS HE REFERRING TO? DOES A GOD HAVE A GOD?
Good word brother! However, I don't think that's the reason why he said what he said to mary.
Thx!
God bless you!
Good question. It would not be rational to tell Mary that based on normal circumstances. The interpretation is probably wrong and is more of a question because Mary was more than likely shocked to see Jesus up in the flesh, alive. The Greek could be interpreted as " Sayings at the time of Jesus. Doubt me but touched me not yet? Indeed I am up because of the Father. Go to my brothers and tell them I am up because of my Father and your Father. Basically, Jesus was probably saying come touch me to be certain that it's me right here in front of you in the flesh.
I will not argue the interpretation, since this video clearly sets forth my position. However, your interpretation of the Greek is not accurate and totally untenable. The Greek reads: John 20:17 λέγει αὐτῇ Ἰησοῦς· μή μου ἅπτου, οὔπω γὰρ ἀναβέβηκα πρὸς τὸν πατέρα· πορεύου δὲ πρὸς τοὺς ἀδελφούς μου καὶ εἰπὲ αὐτοῖς· ἀναβαίνω πρὸς τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν. And the literal interpretation is: "Jesus says to her, "Do not touch me, for not yet have I gone up to the Father; And go to my brothers and say to them; I am going up to My Father and your Father and My God and your God."
Nestle, E., Nestle, E., Aland, B., Aland, K., Karavidopoulos, J., Martini, C. M., & Metzger, B. M. (1993). The Greek New Testament (27th ed., Jn 20:17). Stuttgart: Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft.
@@LetsTalkScripture Let me try and explain my interpretation as it is not good to translate word for word. In context let me establish a few things. Mary did not expect Jesus to be alive because of the crucifixion. Also, at the time, Jesus is considered to be a regular man. No one is expecting a man to ascend(fly up) to the skies unaided. The writings may have took place centuries after the actual event which may cause actual messages lost in translation, especially when translating to English. Rational, logical interpretations would have been expected at the time of the events for who did not bear witness.
μή μου ἅπτου οὔπω I would consider a clause on its own. μή is a negative particle expressing denial/disbelief translated lest, interpreted as doubt. ἅπτου the verb translated touch followed by the negative adverb οὔπω expressing have not yet touched. Interpretation would be Lest you touch me you won't be certain or Having doubt but you have not yet touched me. Verse 20 back this up. Jesus ensure to show his wounds for the disciples to believe that it is really him without a doubt.
I consider γὰρ, ἀναβέβηκα πρὸς τὸν πατέρα to be a clause by itself. γὰρ is translated as indeed, used to express confirmation of something already inferred, being up as in being alive. ἀναβέβηκα translates I rise interpreted as I am up because of the obvious, being down as everyone expected death. Jesus was not down but up and good. πρὸς Before I get to this word I would want to point out that through out the scriptures involving Jesus, Jesus is always "pro" father. Ascribing everything good to the father. The Greek word is transliterated "Pros" which barely needs any translation may be translated as towards, with and advantages for. I interpret as because of "the Father" ( τὸν πατέρα). We all know who the Father is.
Basically, Jesus is saying don't doubt that it is me being alive. Touch me. I am alive because of the Father.
The reason for all of this would be to prove that Jesus is of the Father, Son of God, and therefore the Jews/Israelites would follow his teachings as oppose to the Pharisees that were causing a burden to the people. This was the sign Jesus mentioned to be similar to Jona but greater.
@@dlof5892 Your Greek has much to be desired, especially with the interpretation. Nevertheless, thank you and I hope you are benefitted from the teachings.
@@LetsTalkScripture Ok. If a known teacher went to give a lecture to a group of students and says "I am reaching for the stars. Sky is the limit. Rise with the cloud and elevate. You can come with me and reach the skies." Lets say this is recorded in the school. Why would someone reading think that t is literal. Why would a none native speaker translating to another language think flying to the skies, unaided, is meant, even 2000 years from now. There would be no reason to unless there is a preconceived idea that a man of God goes to the skies after death which is subjective.
hello my brother - How can 1+1+1=1??? , if u said 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1 but How at the same time ( father ≠ son ≠ spirit )
If you say that God is composite between three,
John tell u the truth 20:17
jesus him self said to Mary ,tell them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.'
Focus on my father and ur father , It is clear that jesus is not the son of GOD (Jesus is the Prophet of God) - read the Quran mary chapter and u will find the truth
You have to stop making this kind of arguments brother. They aren't helping you. You compare the Almighty God to mathematics? Do you believe that Allah is one infinite God? Considering it's one of his names, you have no choice.
So what do you get if you count; infinite + infinite + infinite = ?
Did you even dive into the teaching of the Trinity before you asked this question?
You will find in the following scripture that Thomas called Jesus my Lord and my God. So these apostles come to realize who Jesus was
God is immortal then who died in the cross?!
The second person of the Trinity who became flesh for our sake
@Let's Talk Scripture
Ok, if you want to talk scripture then you should use an *actual* scripture. The verse says, "touch me not" not "stop clinging to me".
John 20:16-17 (NA28): * 17 λέγει αὐτῇ ⸆ Ἰησοῦς· ⸂μή μου ἅπτου⸃, This is what the text says. Translated, “Jesus is saying to her do not cling to me.” The verb here is “haptou”, which is a present imperative. This use of the present tense indicates continues action. This is why the verb is translated “cling”, because it rightly shows the intent of the original Greek text that the Scripture was written. Hope that helped. Thanks for watching.
@@LetsTalkScripture
Apparently, you are using something other than the KJV, which is where your error lies.
I would like more content on satan
Means he wasn't God
You're correct. He is *always* God
@@nromanov I never said he is always God. Read my post again
@@archangeljesus4369 you said; wasn't. Wasn't is past time. So He wasn't only God in the past, He is always God. Past, present and future. So you were correct
@@nromanov I meant he wasn't God and never will be.
@@archangeljesus4369 then you have to choose your words more carefully