Half Heat Equation

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  • เผยแพร่เมื่อ 1 ม.ค. 2025

ความคิดเห็น • 31

  • @ferax_aqua
    @ferax_aqua 4 ปีที่แล้ว +7

    This trick is applicable to the wave equation as well. For 1D wave-eq you actually get a very nice physical interpretation: The leftward wave travels to the boundary and gets reflected back, making interference with later leftward wave, while the rightward wave remains intact.
    Beside oddification, you can also 'evenify', making an even extension with the initial condition, which solves the half line PDE with Neumann boundary conditions such as {u_t = ku_xx for x positive, u'(0, t) = 0, u(x, 0) = f(x)}. Even functions automatically satisfy Neumann conditions the same way odd functions satisfy Dirichlet conditions, a pretty neat duality.
    Excellent video Dr. Peyam!

  • @dhunt6618
    @dhunt6618 4 ปีที่แล้ว +9

    Proof by laziness - love it! Would you ever get around doing a proof by procrastination? :)

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  4 ปีที่แล้ว +7

      I always keep postponing it 😂

  • @sadface7457
    @sadface7457 4 ปีที่แล้ว +2

    Can we get introduction to the fractional fourier tranform

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  4 ปีที่แล้ว +1

      There’s already a video on that, check out the video Half Derivative and Fourier Transform

  • @SiggiTheHopper2
    @SiggiTheHopper2 4 ปีที่แล้ว +4

    Begone, Φ_odd!

  • @tahseensaad7860
    @tahseensaad7860 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    GOOD JOB DR. PEYAM!

  • @benjaminbrat3922
    @benjaminbrat3922 4 ปีที่แล้ว +1

    Very nice!
    I think we could develop the exponentials a little more, and get something like 1/sqrt(4kpi*t)*exp(-bla*x^2)*integral of Exp(-blabla*y^2)*sinh(something*y)*phi(y)dy.
    But I know that you often get exp(a*x)sinh(b*y) when solving Laplace eq. Would there be a relationship between the two problems?

  • @fireemblem2770
    @fireemblem2770 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    What prerequisites should I have down so i can understand the heat equation and apply it?

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  4 ปีที่แล้ว

      Just watch the playlist from the beginning :)

    • @fireemblem2770
      @fireemblem2770 4 ปีที่แล้ว

      @@drpeyam Thank you so much and I can't wait to watch more of your videos!!!

  • @Axion004
    @Axion004 5 หลายเดือนก่อน

    As odd functions are defined by f(-x)= -f(x), shouldn't it be -f(x) if x

    • @Axion004
      @Axion004 5 หลายเดือนก่อน

      Ah, nevermind. The original function would have been f(-x) for x < 0. So, writing -f(-x) would be a correct interpretation of an odd extension (observe that f(-x) for x < 0 would be an even and not an odd extension). Thanks for posting these videos.

  • @pratikkumar1729
    @pratikkumar1729 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Dr.Peyam you're badass 🔥

  • @joanmartinsuarezloaiza2767
    @joanmartinsuarezloaiza2767 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Awesome like always 👌🏻

  • @sayanmaji2845
    @sayanmaji2845 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Good job...👍👌

  • @文森特-h2n
    @文森特-h2n 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    thank you

  • @leonardromano1491
    @leonardromano1491 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    You haven't really showed that u(x,0)=phi(x). Doing so would involve the nasty limit t->0 which is not at all trivial (Unless you take as a given that this limit of S(x,t) is just a representation of the delta distribution).

  • @epicmorphism2240
    @epicmorphism2240 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Do you think my way is the easiest to solve the gaussian integral? You just have to know subsitution (calc1) and one easy identity wich is really easy to proff with a product.

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  4 ปีที่แล้ว

      Gaussian Integral th-cam.com/play/PLJb1qAQIrmmCgLyHWMXGZnioRHLqOk2bW.html

  • @sayanmaji2845
    @sayanmaji2845 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Thanks

  • @muhammadsaqib2400
    @muhammadsaqib2400 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Can be solved via the joint Laplace and Fourier transformation....

  • @khanster
    @khanster 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Fodd, like the odd fella, lord farquaad, in shrek.

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  4 ปีที่แล้ว

      Khan Tran Hahahaha

  • @СашаФещенко-п2и
    @СашаФещенко-п2и 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    thank you !!!

  • @mauricepanero
    @mauricepanero 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    Shirly an even PLUS an odd is odd; not even TIMES an odd?

    • @NAMEhzj
      @NAMEhzj 4 ปีที่แล้ว +1

      If you are talking about integers, yes. What he has in the video are even/odd *functions* , though, so in this case odd times even is indeed odd.

    • @mauricepanero
      @mauricepanero 4 ปีที่แล้ว

      @@NAMEhzj Why? How do you prove this? Somewhat confusing to the novice don't you think?

    • @NAMEhzj
      @NAMEhzj 4 ปีที่แล้ว

      @@mauricepanero I mean yes, but if you want to get anywhere in these kinds of videos you have to take some things as known otherwise you're stuck forever explaining basic things.
      You can just check that it works out.
      Let f be an even function and g be an odd function.
      Then f(-x) = x and g(-x) = -g(x) (for all x)
      so fg(-x) = f(-x)g(-x) = f(x)(-g(x)) = -f(x)g(x) = - fg(x)
      so fg is an odd function.

  • @ssdd9911
    @ssdd9911 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    i can odd!