After three years I am back to listen to this awesome teaching again. When I first listened to it I was a baby in Christ, now my faith has waxed stronger also because of these kinds of teachings on the Word of God. And I just want to say thank you very much for posting this teaching. God bless you Jim and Bro. Sam Gipp. Stay blessed in Jesus´name👍
Can we trust the KJV - absolutely. Should we look into the Greek and Hebrew underlying the text of the KJV - if we are able, absolutely. Should we use lexicons and interlinears? Yes, if we have the wisdom and knowledge to use them correctly.
I love Dr. Gipp's videos, but he did misquote Matthew 5:18 (KJV) 18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. The scripture says 'all be fulfilled' and not 'law be fulfilled', and besides Heaven and Earth have not passed. This can be found at 1:41:20 in this video.
Greetings brother Sam. As Christians I don't believe we should be calling each other names if we do not agree with something that is said to be biblically correct but may not be. However, the Scriptures tells us to study (2 Timothy 2:15) and test (1 Thessalonians 5:21). In doing so I would like to point out that in your test given to your students that in 1st.Thessalonians 4:9 a different words for i used and not "phileō". For example in 1st. Thessalonians 4:9 The first word "love" is the Greek word "philadelphia / φιλαδελφιας" which means (fraternal affection) and the second word "love" is "agapaō / αγαπαν". In 2nd. Timothy 3:4 "lovers of pleasures" is "philēdonos" and is written as "φιληδονοι" in the original text which is a noun, plural masculine and means "fond of pleasure". "Lovers of God" here is the word "philotheos" φιλοθεοι in the original text which means "fond of God, that is, pious" and is an Adjective-Nominative, Plural Masculine. I just believe that your test should take into consideration part of speech. In some of your examples you are referring to two forms of agape like Agapē the (noun) a narrow and agapaō the (verb) which is used wider. I'm no Greek expert, just a Christian who loves Jesus and studies the word of God. Many blessings to you and your ministry.
Two misinterpretation of English words I have found compared to the same word in the koine greek: 1) Recieve. The word recieve means " to take hold of" meaning there are things we must do in order to take possession of the free gift of salvation. 2) tongues. The word "tongues" isn't plural but singular and means " another language" and " a language".
To take possession of the gift of eternal life we must take hold of the blood and apply the blood and call and believe upon the name of the lord Jesus christ nothing more Faith is all we need
How is a strong lexicon and Greek lexicon comprised? Is it similar to gematria, where a word value is added, for example, say 12 in Greek lexicon means government, what makes it #12?
From the KJV Translators to the Reader: "Now in such a case, doth not a margin do well to admonish the Reader to seek further, and not to conclude or dogmatize upon this or that peremptorily? For as it is a fault of incredulity, to doubt of those things that are evident: so to determine of such things as the Spirit of God hath left (even in the judgment of the judicious) questionable, can be no less than presumption. Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that variety of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the Scriptures: so diversity of signification and sense in the margin, where the text is no so clear, must needs do good, yea, is necessary, as we are persuaded. We know that Sixtus Quintus expressly forbiddeth, that any variety of readings of their vulgar edition, should be put in the margin, (which though it be not altogether the same thing to that we have in hand, yet it looketh that way) but we think he hath not all of his own side his favorers, for this conceit. They that are wise, had rather have their judgments at liberty in differences of readings, than to be captivated to one, when it may be the other. If they were sure that their high Priest had all laws shut up in his breast, as Paul the Second bragged, and that he were as free from error by special privilege, as the Dictators of Rome were made by law inviolable, it were another matter; then his word were an Oracle, his opinion a decision. But the eyes of the world are now open, God be thanked, and have been a great while, they find that he is subject to the same affections and infirmities that others be, that his skin is penetrable, and therefore so much as he proveth, not as much as he claimeth, they grant and embrace."
@@ChiknEatnBaptist Yes, they were not. That being said, I have found the KJV to be a great bible translation, honestly the best i've seen in English, but i find it incredibly foolish for people to toss out the original Greek or the Hebrew.
I do not know Koine Greek or Hebrew, if I wanted to learn either then I would have to depend on either a person (educator) or a set of books to teach me the language. and in teaching me they would have to give me what a particular word means because not knowing the language I would not know the definitions of the words, so I would be at the person or book's definition for such and such a word. One pastor Dr. Gene Kim said that some Greek words can have from 5 to 13 different meanings, 5 - 13 now how am I supposed to know which one is the right one when I do not know the language. I do not trust the colleges as they have become nothing more than denominational indoctrination centers, where you are at the dependence of the teachers to tell you what is right, and when the young people go there, they come out believing what they were taught because they paid good money for their papers that say they now have x amount of alphabet soup after their names.
10/29/2024 In the OT if you wanted to know the Word of God you had to go to Israel and learn to speak/read/write Hebrew. There was only 1 pathway available for every person on Earth. In the latter days why is it so far fetched that God follows the same suit in giving His preserved Word in 1 language, which is English, ala the KJB? Is God cruel if He did that? Does it disqualify Him from being a "loving God"?
Thy word is VERY pure, therefore thy servant loveth it. care to name that PURE word of GOD? Your pure word is your own opinions and NOT scriptures. Show me anything that is better than the King James bible, ya can't and never will.
This guy doesn't know what he's talking about most Greek can't be translated into English and you need to parse the word Nehemiah 8 8 distinctively means parsing
the problem is definition. his definition is wrong the test doesn't prove the KJV is better than knowing the Greek. fact is they are errors in the KJV. people would love to believe otherwise because they are lazy. since he want's us to only use the king James to understand. here is Agape for you right out the good old King James Bible 2 John 1:6 And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it. 2nd witness in your good old King James Bible 1 John 5:3 For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous. Agape is a Father's love passing His rules/commandments to His sons. same kind of love you would have for your children, telling them how to act for their own good. Phileo on the other hand is what we think of as love. so if you know this definition the test just shows what is said. like number 8. Luke 11:43 this was their god, the upper seats. just like severing money. they loved to be the boss. number 21. this is why you love your wife as God loves us. Ephesians 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it; and this also shows number 20. man is the head of the house so a woman should love her husband, but obey God over anything. and a man rules the house so you love her if she follows Gods commandments if not don't love her. the same way God won't love us if we don't follow the commandments. the test just shows the words used nothing more nothing less. or maybe it shows a little bit of truth is dangerous. because you lean on a bible that was Translated by half puritans and half Catholics. and they was a lot of comprise going on. FACT if you have the study tool Theological Dictionary of the new testament vol 1. look up Agape starts on page 25 and goes on and on but great definition. but just them two verses in the KJV bible should be enough for you.
Maybe what you call errors is actually inspired by God. You think God can't write a perfect book and preserve it? You don't think God is ALL powerful and ALLmighty!? Fool.
Arrogant? Yes..Wrong about Bible translation? Absolutely..A heretic? I don’t think so. He just has some incredibly bad anti-scholarly views on Bible translation. It definitely misleads people who don’t research it for themselves. There was a time when I would’ve probably accepted the things he claims as truth. The problem is that he really should know better. He has a blind faith and calls on Christians to have a blind faith in the King James Bible. Christians do not need to have blind faith in the preservation of God’s Word. God preserved ancient manuscripts that would literally be a mile and a quarter high if stacked ( according to Dan Wallace..and he would know). Instead the KJV Onlyists are making the exact arguments that the proponents of the Latin vulgate made..and they’re telling us to believe, by blind faith, that even though the KJV does not perfectly match any manuscripts, differs from the Byzantine manuscripts it’s based on in over 1800 different places, and contains readings that appear in no Greek manuscripts at all (because Erasmus didn’t have complete manuscripts and had to translate into Greek from Latin) that we should accept it as the only perfectly preserved translation of God’s Word. It’s complete nonsense.
After three years I am back to listen to this awesome teaching again. When I first listened to it I was a baby in Christ, now my faith has waxed stronger also because of these kinds of teachings on the Word of God. And I just want to say thank you very much for posting this teaching. God bless you Jim and Bro. Sam Gipp. Stay blessed in Jesus´name👍
Can we trust the KJV - absolutely. Should we look into the Greek and Hebrew underlying the text of the KJV - if we are able, absolutely. Should we use lexicons and interlinears? Yes, if we have the wisdom and knowledge to use them correctly.
Thank you for a quality version!
Thank you for sharing this video, I really appreciate it. It is a blessing. Jim be blessed in the name of Jesus Christ.
If you're on YT and see a preacher with a white board; run...
I love Dr. Gipp's videos, but he did misquote Matthew 5:18 (KJV)
18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. The scripture says 'all be fulfilled' and not 'law be fulfilled', and besides Heaven and Earth have not passed. This can be found at 1:41:20 in this video.
Greetings brother Sam. As Christians I don't believe we should be calling each other names if we do not agree with something that is said to be biblically correct but may not be. However, the Scriptures tells us to study (2 Timothy 2:15) and test (1 Thessalonians 5:21). In doing so I would like to point out that in your test given to your students that in 1st.Thessalonians 4:9 a different words for i used and not "phileō".
For example in 1st. Thessalonians 4:9 The first word "love" is the Greek word "philadelphia / φιλαδελφιας" which means (fraternal affection) and the second word "love" is "agapaō / αγαπαν". In 2nd. Timothy 3:4 "lovers of pleasures" is "philēdonos" and is written as "φιληδονοι" in the original text which is a noun, plural masculine and means "fond of pleasure". "Lovers of God" here is the word "philotheos" φιλοθεοι in the original text which means "fond of God, that is, pious" and is an Adjective-Nominative, Plural Masculine.
I just believe that your test should take into consideration part of speech. In some of your examples you are referring to two forms of agape like Agapē the (noun) a narrow and agapaō the (verb) which is used wider.
I'm no Greek expert, just a Christian who loves Jesus and studies the word of God.
Many blessings to you and your ministry.
You'd better look up 'study' in 2 Tim 2:15. It doesn't mean what I think you think it means.
Two misinterpretation of English words I have found compared to the same word in the koine greek:
1) Recieve. The word recieve means " to take hold of" meaning there are things we must do in order to take possession of the free gift of salvation.
2) tongues. The word "tongues" isn't plural but singular and means " another language" and " a language".
Exactly
You trust something that isn't God's word
The kjb is God in written form
How dare we correct God in written form
To take possession of the gift of eternal life we must take hold of the blood and apply the blood and call and believe upon the name of the lord Jesus christ nothing more
Faith is all we need
See, we can get bad doctrine. We do nothing to get salvation. Tongues is quite clear in context its about a language I do need any Greek or Hebrew.
How is a strong lexicon and Greek lexicon comprised? Is it similar to gematria, where a word value is added, for example, say 12 in Greek lexicon means government, what makes it #12?
From the KJV Translators to the Reader: "Now in such a case, doth not a margin do well to admonish the Reader to seek further, and not to conclude or dogmatize upon this or that peremptorily? For as it is a fault of incredulity, to doubt of those things that are evident: so to determine of such things as the Spirit of God hath left (even in the judgment of the judicious) questionable, can be no less than presumption. Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that variety of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the Scriptures: so diversity of signification and sense in the margin, where the text is no so clear, must needs do good, yea, is necessary, as we are persuaded. We know that Sixtus Quintus expressly forbiddeth, that any variety of readings of their vulgar edition, should be put in the margin, (which though it be not altogether the same thing to that we have in hand, yet it looketh that way) but we think he hath not all of his own side his favorers, for this conceit. They that are wise, had rather have their judgments at liberty in differences of readings, than to be captivated to one, when it may be the other. If they were sure that their high Priest had all laws shut up in his breast, as Paul the Second bragged, and that he were as free from error by special privilege, as the Dictators of Rome were made by law inviolable, it were another matter; then his word were an Oracle, his opinion a decision. But the eyes of the world are now open, God be thanked, and have been a great while, they find that he is subject to the same affections and infirmities that others be, that his skin is penetrable, and therefore so much as he proveth, not as much as he claimeth, they grant and embrace."
Sooo in other words the KJV translators weren't king james only.
@@ChiknEatnBaptist Yes, they were not. That being said, I have found the KJV to be a great bible translation, honestly the best i've seen in English, but i find it incredibly foolish for people to toss out the original Greek or the Hebrew.
I do not know Koine Greek or Hebrew, if I wanted to learn either then I would have to depend on either a person (educator) or a set of books to teach me the language.
and in teaching me they would have to give me what a particular word means because not knowing the language I would not know the definitions of the words, so I would be at the person or book's definition for such and such a word.
One pastor Dr. Gene Kim said that some Greek words can have from 5 to 13 different meanings, 5 - 13 now how am I supposed to know which one is the right one when I do not know the language.
I do not trust the colleges as they have become nothing more than denominational indoctrination centers, where you are at the dependence of the teachers to tell you what is right, and when the young people go there, they come out believing what they were taught because they paid good money for their papers that say they now have x amount of alphabet soup after their names.
It's the same as the government schools. The Christian schools are exactly the same.
10/29/2024 In the OT if you wanted to know the Word of God you had to go to Israel and learn to speak/read/write Hebrew. There was only 1 pathway available for every person on Earth. In the latter days why is it so far fetched that God follows the same suit in giving His preserved Word in 1 language, which is English, ala the KJB? Is God cruel if He did that? Does it disqualify Him from being a "loving God"?
very nice teachings
love how he tells it like it is w/ a sense of humor
Thy word is very pure, therefore thy servant loveth it.You OBVIOUSLY do NOT love the pure word of God.You love yer own selfish opinion.
Thy word is VERY pure, therefore thy servant loveth it. care to name that PURE word of GOD? Your pure word is your own opinions and NOT scriptures. Show me anything that is better than the King James bible, ya can't and never will.
herbbearingseed you are deceived if you think the KJV is perfect.
This guy doesn't know what he's talking about most Greek can't be translated into English and you need to parse the word Nehemiah 8 8 distinctively means parsing
Pastor Jim brown is a great teacher!
@@nathanielmartin9892 αμήν 🙏
The Geneva actually have a contradiction.
the problem is definition. his definition is wrong the test doesn't prove the KJV is better than knowing the Greek. fact is they are errors in the KJV. people would love to believe otherwise because they are lazy. since he want's us to only use the king James to understand. here is Agape for you right out the good old King James Bible
2 John 1:6 And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it.
2nd witness in your good old King James Bible
1 John 5:3 For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.
Agape is a Father's love passing His rules/commandments to His sons. same kind of love you would have for your children, telling them how to act for their own good.
Phileo on the other hand is what we think of as love.
so if you know this definition the test just shows what is said.
like number 8. Luke 11:43 this was their god, the upper seats. just like severing money. they loved to be the boss.
number 21. this is why you love your wife as God loves us. Ephesians 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;
and this also shows number 20. man is the head of the house so a woman should love her husband, but obey God over anything. and a man rules the house so you love her if she follows Gods commandments if not don't love her. the same way God won't love us if we don't follow the commandments.
the test just shows the words used nothing more nothing less. or maybe it shows a little bit of truth is dangerous. because you lean on a bible that was Translated by half puritans and half Catholics. and they was a lot of comprise going on. FACT
if you have the study tool Theological Dictionary of the new testament vol 1. look up Agape starts on page 25 and goes on and on but great definition. but just them two verses in the KJV bible should be enough for you.
Maybe what you call errors is actually inspired by God. You think God can't write a perfect book and preserve it? You don't think God is ALL powerful and ALLmighty!? Fool.
You lie! How do you know how men of God spend their study time?!?
Grace and truth ministry. Net it will blow your mind 🙏
You are absolutely deprived of wisdom
Gipp is such an arrogant heretic.
The whole KJV only teaching is a heresy, taught by arrogant heretics.
Arrogant? Yes..Wrong about Bible translation? Absolutely..A heretic? I don’t think so. He just has some incredibly bad anti-scholarly views on Bible translation. It definitely misleads people who don’t research it for themselves. There was a time when I would’ve probably accepted the things he claims as truth. The problem is that he really should know better. He has a blind faith and calls on Christians to have a blind faith in the King James Bible. Christians do not need to have blind faith in the preservation of God’s Word. God preserved ancient manuscripts that would literally be a mile and a quarter high if stacked ( according to Dan Wallace..and he would know). Instead the KJV Onlyists are making the exact arguments that the proponents of the Latin vulgate made..and they’re telling us to believe, by blind faith, that even though the KJV does not perfectly match any manuscripts, differs from the Byzantine manuscripts it’s based on in over 1800 different places, and contains readings that appear in no Greek manuscripts at all (because Erasmus didn’t have complete manuscripts and had to translate into Greek from Latin) that we should accept it as the only perfectly preserved translation of God’s Word. It’s complete nonsense.
All KJV only cultists are arrogant heretics.
Nice ad hominem argument. Slanderous too. I'm sure the Lord will have something to say about it in due time.
you are to much bla bla bla, need to go to the point, boring video,