I just spent a lot of time thinking about why lambda is 2 in this problem. I could agree intuitively, but the explanation wasn't working with how I'd defined/understood variables. So, I'm going to share this note without rambling more about my confusion. Lambda is 2 because (20 min)*(6 problems / 60 minutes) = 2 problems in the redefined interval (and also happens to be the number asked for in the question). We redefined lambda (the number of events) according to a smaller subinterval, given what we were told about the mean of the distribution on the interval of an hour. This complies with a part of the definition of the Poisson: The probability of one count in a subinterval is the same for all subintervals and proportional to the length of the subinterval. And, this also helped me: If a Poisson random variable represents the number of counts in some interval, the mean of the random variable must equal the expected number of counts in the same length of interval.
wendy the pauses you give after explaining something are a lost art among some professors. giving the student a moment to digest is essential sometimes!
very nicely explained. thank you so much for the video! i just have a question... when we're dealing w Poission, why do we exclude the upper number when we're dealing with inequalties like P(X< 2)? why do we exclude the 2? I've seen this happen in my workbook as well and it's been confusing me. i find it strange because even in this one example I saw elsewhere, even with an inequality like P(X
Great Question! Since the question concerns probability in terms of minutes, we want to have lambda in terms of minutes. In other words, we want problems per minute.
thank you.... so basically in poisson we decide our unit as per requirement... here we took 20minutes = 1 unit.... and for exponential we keep unit as it is ?? does this make sense... did i understand or i messed up somewhere?
I just spent a lot of time thinking about why lambda is 2 in this problem. I could agree intuitively, but the explanation wasn't working with how I'd defined/understood variables. So, I'm going to share this note without rambling more about my confusion. Lambda is 2 because (20 min)*(6 problems / 60 minutes) = 2 problems in the redefined interval (and also happens to be the number asked for in the question).
We redefined lambda (the number of events) according to a smaller subinterval, given what we were told about the mean of the distribution on the interval of an hour. This complies with a part of the definition of the Poisson: The probability of one count in a subinterval is the same for all subintervals and proportional to the length of the subinterval. And, this also helped me: If a Poisson random variable represents the number of counts in some interval, the mean of the random variable must equal the expected number of counts in the same length of interval.
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wendy the pauses you give after explaining something are a lost art among some professors. giving the student a moment to digest is essential sometimes!
You just saved my life with this explanation my current professor makes things so complicated 😂
You couldn't have made this more easier. Thank you Wendy!
Excellent explanation. Thanks for showing the Poisson view and Exponential view side by side with same example setup.
The sound is even more amazing!... Using headset, it was a 3D experience sound! ... and yes, the explanation is pretty clear!
thank you! I was so confused before! You made it very clear!!!
u explained it in a very simple way .keep up the good work❤
That was an amazing and clear explanation! Thanks so much
Thank you! I finally understood the difference between these distributions :)
Thank you! It really helped me to discriminate between the solution processes of Poisson & Exponential Distribution Problems.
Very informative video! Greatly helped me understand the nuance between both! Thank you and keep up the good work :)
thank you for this. this was very helpful!
you're real hero, thanks!
Very well explained!!! Appreciate your effort!!!
Thank you Ms. Wendy for the very clear explanation!
Great video, even after six years!
Jump scare at 6:55! 😱 😂
Saw your comment, still didn't expect it. 😂
@@alexanderchurney2289 I ended up doing the same even after reading both of your comment ... lol!
Excellent explanation! thank you very much :D
Thanks this video is great it helps me a lot on the coming test!
Perfect. I didnt even swich on the sound. Sketches tells everything
very clear explanation. Thank you!!!
Those 4 dislikers must be Art students
Thank you from India
very nicely explained. thank you so much for the video! i just have a question... when we're dealing w Poission, why do we exclude the upper number when we're dealing with inequalties like P(X< 2)? why do we exclude the 2? I've seen this happen in my workbook as well and it's been confusing me. i find it strange because even in this one example I saw elsewhere, even with an inequality like P(X
P(X
Thank you... nice explanation
Thank you youtube for this degree
nicely explained
Amazing video. Thank you!
great explaination. Thanks!
Wow. Thank you sir.
for exponential distribution, shouldnt the lambda be 1/6? Since 6 homework per hour is the average?
Great Question! Since the question concerns probability in terms of minutes, we want to have lambda in terms of minutes. In other words, we want problems per minute.
Wowwww nice❤️❤️❤️❤️❤️❤️❤️
Great video - thanks!
Thanks ♥️
thank you.... so basically in poisson we decide our unit as per requirement... here we took 20minutes = 1 unit.... and for exponential we keep unit as it is ?? does this make sense... did i understand or i messed up somewhere?
Thank you so much
AMU Homework discussion forum 4 Stochastic Processes
If exponential if x is greater than x than you need to multiply the formula by 1/lambda
Hi Joey,
I am not sure I understand your comment.
P(X>x) = 1 - P(X
Bless up Wendy
thanks
since lambda 2/20 why you used 2 ! do we need to divide it first to convert it into minutes
Lambda = 2 ; the unit is 20 minutes. We get 2! when we substitute 2 into the formula. Does that make sense?
Thank you...
thank u
Please keep going to probability videossss : ' (
With the Poisson distribution how do you get 40.06% Because surely if you divide by 0 factorial it's invalid? Do we just take it to be 1?
Yes. 0! = 1
Zero factorial = 1.
Mrs Arnold?
Legend
so less sound!!!!!
run at 2x