Thanks so much for posting up these videos. They are an incredibly helpful supplement, and you have a really clear way of teaching things.... I am really looking forward to some new videos soon!
Sure! If you don't do the trick that he does, the integral is 1/lambda*e^(-lambda*x) evaluated from 0 to infinity. The limit of that function as x approaches infinity is 0, which we see from it approaching 1/infinity. We must then evaluate the lower limit and *subtract* it (I think this may be where you made a mistake) and we end up subtracting -1/lambda(1/e^0) and since we are subtracting a negative it becomes just 1/lamda*1 = 1/lambda. Hope that helps!
sorry my math is a little bit rusty but could someone tell me why at 10:49 isn't the result negative one over lambda? I thought when you integrate (e to the power of a negative constant times x) the result should be (e to the power of a negative constant times x over the negative constant)? Sorry for the messy question but it's kinda hard asking a math question in comment. :)
Thanks so much for posting up these videos. They are an incredibly helpful supplement, and you have a really clear way of teaching things.... I am really looking forward to some new videos soon!
Sure! If you don't do the trick that he does, the integral is 1/lambda*e^(-lambda*x) evaluated from 0 to infinity. The limit of that function as x approaches infinity is 0, which we see from it approaching 1/infinity. We must then evaluate the lower limit and *subtract* it (I think this may be where you made a mistake) and we end up subtracting -1/lambda(1/e^0) and since we are subtracting a negative it becomes just 1/lamda*1 = 1/lambda. Hope that helps!
Thanks, I have benefited immensely
great video helped me a lot looking back on my lecture notes while doing my homework problem set
This is incredibly clear, thank you!
I am curious to know if you are planning on putting any more of these videos out any time in the near future.
why is dx replaced with -1/λ?
Good work, Sir 👏
kudozz am very greatful hope for more under distibutions
This is really helpful! Thanks
The integral at 10:49 is the same as the one solved between 1:48 and 2:56 .
Really good video, thank you
at 9:00 , what will be the result for [X/e^(lambda*X)] when limits are from negative infinity to zero??
why negative infinity to zero? the support of exponential distribution is (0, infinity)
helped me a lot. Thank you
can you further show how exponential distribution can be written as a member of exponential family
At 14:45, why is the lamba negative?
Because if you differentiating w.r.t "t" following chain rule coefficient of t is -1 thats why.
Great video!
Dear Sir Please tell how can integrate of Likelihood function of exponential dist.
sorry my math is a little bit rusty but could someone tell me why at 10:49 isn't the result negative one over lambda? I thought when you integrate (e to the power of a negative constant times x) the result should be (e to the power of a negative constant times x over the negative constant)? Sorry for the messy question but it's kinda hard asking a math question in comment. :)
i think the same...
Sir make video on hypergeometric distribution
O.o Yeah I think I forgot to bring in the negative sign or I reversed the terms and took 1/lambda[(-1) - 0]. Everything makes sense now. Thanks~! :D
Thank you sir . :))
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what is pdf precious?
probability distributuin function
excellent
Thank you so much
Thank you
Ahh the mathematician in me really hates you skipping the limits in your improper integral...
Thnks'