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2 questions from me: 1) How do equity stock options create dilution for the company. Surely the company would go into the open market once an employee exercises the option and buy the shares and then transfer them to the employee, thus no dilution right? Firms can't possibly create additional shares for the sake of providing staff with equity? 2) When employee engages in the equity based option plan, do they pay for the option at the grant date? I mean, if the option is worthless after the vesting date do they get their money back then (if the employee has paid for the option on the grant date).
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I did not understand the example which says allocate in year 1 fully and in the 2nd tranche 50% of year one and 50% of year two. It should then be 50,000 in yr 1 (fully) and in yr two its again (50% of 50,000)+ (50% of 50,000) which is again 50,000 right?
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It means that you allocate the first tranche (50,000) in year 1 and 50% of the second tranche (50,000x0.5) So in Y1 We have the full allocation of first tranche 50,000 plus the half of the second tranche (50,000x0.5)= 25,000, all in all Year 1 will have 75,000 compensation expense and Year 2's compensation expense will have 50% of the second tranche (50,000x0.5)=25,000
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How i wish you're our accounting teacher sir because you explained it so well. Thank you so much!
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You make understanding of these seemingly accounting standards much easier than iv ever known...👌
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Excellent accounting training video. Greatly appreciated!
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Its is very easy to understand.I love the lecture.Thank you very much
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Whenever you say study hard its worth it, i gives me some hope lol
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PERFECT Mr farhata
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2 questions from me:
1) How do equity stock options create dilution for the company. Surely the company would go into the open market once an employee exercises the option and buy the shares and then transfer them to the employee, thus no dilution right? Firms can't possibly create additional shares for the sake of providing staff with equity?
2) When employee engages in the equity based option plan, do they pay for the option at the grant date? I mean, if the option is worthless after the vesting date do they get their money back then (if the employee has paid for the option on the grant date).
Thank you Mr. Farhat.
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Could you help me to understand what is share alternative and cash alternative mean? Thank you for your video. it help
I did not understand the example which says allocate in year 1 fully and in the 2nd tranche 50% of year one and 50% of year two. It should then be 50,000 in yr 1 (fully) and in yr two its again (50% of 50,000)+ (50% of 50,000) which is again 50,000 right?
It's a great and lovely.Thanks sir.
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Thank you for the amazing efforts
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Thank you so much...very helpful
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Hi Farhat, is this same topic apply US CMA Sec A part 1 in share based payment to employees ?
It is clear, thank you.
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Well explained, Thanks Sir.
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I am confused on why the first year compensation expense is $75,000 while the second year is only $25,000. It is around 14:33.
Review minute 13:49 forward
It means that you allocate the first tranche (50,000) in year 1 and 50% of the second tranche (50,000x0.5) So in Y1 We have the full allocation of first tranche 50,000 plus the half of the second tranche (50,000x0.5)= 25,000, all in all Year 1 will have 75,000 compensation expense and Year 2's compensation expense will have 50% of the second tranche (50,000x0.5)=25,000
Video not running..
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Sir how many total lectures by you on ifrs and how to get it
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Sir, it is your course suitable for ACCA SBR paper.. Please advise
Yes, topics are covered.
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