Why am i struggeling with this? Finding the EPS trend. -0,49 / -0,78 / -0,04 / -0,08 / 0,21 so this formula should be (0,21/-0,49)^(1/4)-1 = Error...... power evaluates to an imaginary number. Tryed (0,21/-0,49)^(1/5)-1 = -184,41%....thats wrong. (0,21/ABS-0,49)^(1/4)-1 = -19,09% wrong again.... What do i do wrong here?
@@SneakyWoolCloth I personaly dont know but you can check out Aswath Damodaran which is a very respected guy about valuation and I think he talks about your scenario in one of his videos
An easy way to check your work is to do the calculation with the starting number using the growth rate you calculated. $0.17 growing by 74.24% per year for 5 years brings you to $2.73 (which is what the free cash flow was 5 years later). So the 5 year annualized growth rate is 74.24%. If you used 1/4 instead it would equate to an annual growth rate of 100.18% which would grow $0.17 into $5.47 after 5 years. Please let me know if you still think I'm missing something and exactly why. Thanks!!
Richard is correct in this case. When doing a CAGR computation you need to treat the first number (present value) as "year 0" since no growth is applied. The index of t=1 indicates a year of growth (ie value at the start of year 2)
Hi Richard! Great video. Super informative. Thanks so much for the shout out and we are glad you found the technique useful. :)
Thank you!!!
This is what I have been looking for. Wow. Now it makes a lot of sense for my project. Thanks a lot
Wonderful :)
i hope this channel grows. you provide VALUE!
Really appreciate you saying this. sorry for the delayed response, I've been sick for the past week or so. Almost 100% again though :)
Any way to solve it when the starting number is negative? The formula doesn't work then.
I have another video on the channel about valuing companies with no earnings
@@IntelligentStockInvesting Thank you for the reply. Great content!
Thanks Richards,really helpful
Glad it was helpful!
Thank you Richard :)
You are very welcome
Sir who to calculate fcf growth of first 3 years please reply sir
Godly video.
Thanks :) Glad you enjoyed it.
Why am i struggeling with this? Finding the EPS trend. -0,49 / -0,78 / -0,04 / -0,08 / 0,21 so this formula should be (0,21/-0,49)^(1/4)-1 = Error...... power evaluates to an imaginary number. Tryed (0,21/-0,49)^(1/5)-1 = -184,41%....thats wrong. (0,21/ABS-0,49)^(1/4)-1 = -19,09% wrong again.... What do i do wrong here?
You cant do it with negative numbers
@@janbartos4502 So there is no way to do this?
@@SneakyWoolCloth I personaly dont know but you can check out Aswath Damodaran which is a very respected guy about valuation and I think he talks about your scenario in one of his videos
the CAGR calculation is wrong the 10 year is not 1/10 it needs to be 1/9
for 5 years it need to be 1/4
An easy way to check your work is to do the calculation with the starting number using the growth rate you calculated. $0.17 growing by 74.24% per year for 5 years brings you to $2.73 (which is what the free cash flow was 5 years later). So the 5 year annualized growth rate is 74.24%. If you used 1/4 instead it would equate to an annual growth rate of 100.18% which would grow $0.17 into $5.47 after 5 years.
Please let me know if you still think I'm missing something and exactly why. Thanks!!
Richard is correct in this case. When doing a CAGR computation you need to treat the first number (present value) as "year 0" since no growth is applied. The index of t=1 indicates a year of growth (ie value at the start of year 2)