Is it possible for a de-merit good to cause under-consumption in another market? If two goods are very strong substitutes, is it possible if XED>1 consumers leave one market to consumer this now better looking merit good, which in turn may mean their original good appears to have less benefits. Could it be that there is market failure in two close markets, one an under and the other an over allocation of resources?
Thank you for your videos, they have really helped me out in my microeconomics.
Your content is invaluable.
Dal is certi a stoner how did my man say hard drugs
Econplusbae
conceptual clarity awesome thanku v much
Can you please do an example 18marker question on something like this PLEASE.
Your video's are awesome.
Is it possible for a de-merit good to cause under-consumption in another market? If two goods are very strong substitutes, is it possible if XED>1 consumers leave one market to consumer this now better looking merit good, which in turn may mean their original good appears to have less benefits. Could it be that there is market failure in two close markets, one an under and the other an over allocation of resources?
Smart a*se
Could you do an 18 mark question for an ocr board alevel, you will obtain alot of view if you do so.
i agree dal should do some essay plans and questions for like ocr. His views would grow fast
Dal the Man!!
Thanks that helped a lot!
it seems i've found the daughter of economics