Always interesting to listen to your conversation with your guests. It is always very interesting and informative. Keep up the good work👍 Greetings from the Netherlands
@@jomamasmama9696 why most non-Christians side with Christianity over Islam? Which action of Hamas Hezbollah Houthis ISIS Al-Qaeda et al would Mohammed DISAPPROVE?
A number of the comments here validate the concerns of the RaMBaM when he limited the presentation of Torah to Christians and Muslims. A Jew could teach a Christian from a limited portion of Torah in order to disprove Christian assertions about it, or if the Christian was considering conversion. However, he forbade teaching any Torah to Muslims because the belief that it was falsified was already ubiquitous among Muslims.
@@TomTimes5 Ummmm, no. You seem to have missed a rather important distinction: Jews and Christians do *not* believe the same things, but Christians do accept Jewish scripture and so a Jew could use the Torah as a mutually accepted reference. On the other hand, a Jew debating with a Muslim could not draw premises from the Torah, as most Muslims do not accept its authenticity and authority. It would be like using a science textbook to argue with a flat-earther, or any canonical religious to argue with an atheist.
It is "ubiquitous" because it is asserted in Tanach before any other subsequent revelation: Jeremiah Chapter 8 יִרְמְיָהוּ ח אֵיכָה תֹאמְרוּ חֲכָמִים אֲנַחְנוּ, וְתוֹרַת יְהוָה אִתָּנוּ; אָכֵן הִנֵּה לַשֶּׁקֶר עָשָׂה, עֵט שֶׁקֶר סֹפְרִים. 8 How do ye say: 'We are wise, and the Law of the LORD is with us'? Lo, certainly in vain hath wrought the vain pen of the scribes. Notice the specific use of (וְתוֹרַת).
@holyfool343 No I think this is not entirely the case. Christians have exegesis on Tanach that is unacceptable to the Jewish faith. But there are many verses in Tanach which are quite coherent with the Muslim faith. Muslims however cannot accept the accusations of adultery, incest, intoxication, the practice of magic etc. Against the prophets which can be found in Tanach. One of the core reasons why a final revelation was provided to mankind was to absolve those noble prophets from the accusations against them in the scripture version we have today.
Given the fact that Jews have been the most persecuted by Christians as lambs not including the great pact of Vatican with Hitler and it's indifference to the 6 million Jews who got executed and horrible torture of centuries , I would say that whatever christianity is , it is not of christ either. The conflict of muslims with Jews is recent atleast, and in the past Jews were much more safe under them. As it is said in the gospels you will know them by their fruits and guess what the fruits of this western religion that started this blackmail of salvation which raped christ of his purity with its dogmas and western ego, I would say leave them the fuck alone. Haven't u read the gospel of john, it is written directly that Jews killed Jesus. Church has been the greatest anti christ force on earth and Christians the most genocidal in history ( lol they call themselves of christ).u guys are still playing that way , Islam is just ur younger brother who now challenges u. Whosoever Jesus was , definitely I can say he was anything but what christianity says he was and whatever islam says as well. Leave the Jews and Jesus alone.
@@jacobortega3424 the Christian new testament has a lot of antisemitism, including notions of Pharisees knowing the truth (Jesus being the messiah) but being purposely malicious, and of course the claim of deicide. As an ex Catholic I can tell you I grew up learning Judaism from this caricature even after the horrors of the Holocaust. Edit: clarification
The chosen people are not defined by ethnicity but by their faith in Allah alone. Those truly chosen are believers who have upheld the teachings of Allah, tracing back to the prophet Abraham, followed by the children of Jacob (Israel), and continuing through to Jesus and the final prophet, Muhammad (peace be upon them), along with all who have faithfully followed them. This excludes those who strayed from their prophets' messages to worship other entities, whether the Calf, the Cross, or the Imams.
Reverence is to deny that Jesus claimed to be divine and started a false religion. Cool story bro. Islam is the exact opposite of Christianity by adding Jesus in Islam and making Jesus completely irrelevant and abrogated by Mohammed. Judaism is the religion of Jesus & Mary. Islam is the religion of perv Pedo Mohammed.
@kb4432 Give me a break. That is not a compliment to Islam. The Qur'an evolved in a milieu that wanted to swoon Near Eastern theists of a particular time period. There is no reason to speak of Mary or Jesus with reverence unless you want grab the ears of people.
I don’t think it’s in good taste for Jews to be trying to teach others at this moment in history. Judaism and Jews in need of exercising introspection and reform at this moment in time.
@@jma7600 Your first assumption is that Judaism is divine in its wisdom. Others who aren’t Jews won’t necessarily agree. Furthermore, don’t pretend you don’t know there’s a genocide happening right now, led by Jews. If any community needs to exercise humility and restraint at this time, it’s Jews. Nobody wants to be “taught” while they’re being brutalized and slaughtered.
@@Chasee445 For starters, Judaism and Jews are two different things. You seem to conflate them both in your message. It is not for me or you to decide what is and isn’t divine. Furthermore it is not anyone’s place to determine what people should and shouldn’t do at any point of time. What you call genocide and bad taste is totally subjective. The rest of the world doesn’t share your view. Israel (not Judaism and not the Jews) has the right to retaliate and defend its sovereign country and its people. The real aggressors are the ones chanting genocidal slogans like “from the river to the sea”. I totally understand that sometimes it is hard to keep an honest perspective when being “brutalised”.
WHAT MADE ISAAC'S MOTHER LAUGH? 11:70-71: They said, “Do not be scared. We have been sent to the people of Lot.” His wife was standing by and laughed [Surah Hūd] The Torah agreed with the Qur'an that Isaac, was named after his mother's laughter. However, the Qur'an differed from the People of the Book's Torah regarding the reason for Isaac's mother's laughter. The writers of the Torah claimed that Isaac's mother laughed (in amazement and astonishment) when she heard the good news of Isaac, because she could not believe that he would be born to them while they were old and infirm, and she was barren and sterile. They also mentioned that Abraham (a year before his wife's laughter) also laughed in amazement at the good news. Rather, they made everyone who heard that laugh in amazement and astonishment. So, for the People of the Book, laughter is because of the good news. The Qur'an's explanation of the reason for Abraham's wife's laughter; 11:69-71: And in a short while he brought a roasted calf. When he saw their hands not reaching the food, he became suspicious and felt scared of them. They said, “Do not be scared. We have been sent to the people of Lot.” His wife was standing by and laughed, then We gave her glad tidings of [the birth of] Isaac and Jacob after Isaac. [Surah Hūd] Laughter (as the Qur'an explained) is not from hearing the good news and has no relation to it, because Abraham's wife laughed (before) her good news [fadahikat fabashsharnaahaa]. The "faa" in (Fabashrnaha) indicates order and sequence. It is as if the verse is telling us that when the wife laughed, the angels turned to her and gave her good news of a child. The Torah has the order (1- good news, 2- laughter), while the order of the Qur’an is (1- laughter, 2- good news), as in the verse [11:71 So she laughed, so We gave her good news]. The word (fadahikat/So she laughed) has a causal faa', so we have to look at what (before it) to know what caused the laughter. We find that what precedes the command to laugh (and his wife was standing, so she laughed), is the command to fear: (They said, "Do not fear. Indeed, we have been sent to the people of Lot." It turns out that the wife’s laughter was a laugh of (security, joy, happiness, and pleasure), because her fear was gone (Do not fear), and because she knew that her husband’s guests were God’s messengers (Indeed, We have been sent). So, according to the Qur’an: laughter is due to the disappearance of fear. The benefit of the phrase [and his wife is standing]; The phrase of the verse [and his wife was standing] indicates that the wife was (present and witnessing) what was happening between her husband and his guest, so she saw them refraining from eating, and she shared her husband's anxiety and fear [15:52 He said, “We are afraid of you.”/[51:28 He felt apprehensive about them.]/ [11:70 he became suspicious and felt scared of them.]. So because she was standing (= standing, looking and observing), she was like her husband [11:74 When the shock of fear left Abraham] terrified and afraid (thinking evil of the guests). But when she heard, while she was present and witnessing (standing), the words of the angels [15:53 They said, “Do not be afraid/51:28 They said, “Do not be afraid,”], and she heard their words [11:70 We have been sent to the people of Lot.”], she knew then that they were messengers of God, so she was happy and delighted and pleased and felt secure and reassured and the fear left her, so she laughed (a laugh of joy, happiness, delight and contentment) because her fear had disappeared and she felt secure. Because she was (standing), that is, present, watching and hearing what was happening, she was consequently afraid, like her husband (that the guests would not touch the food), and when her fear went away (to reassure them of the angels), she laughed (rejoiced in the security). The laughter of the winners is not far from the laughter of Abraham's wife; This is how the faces of the believers will be on the Day of Resurrection [80:39 cheerful and rejoicing;], their faces will laugh with joy, pleasure, delight, contentment and happiness, because the fear has gone away from them and security has encompassed them. So the laughing faces on the Day of Resurrection are (the sparkling, clear, evident, bright, apparent, radiant), and all of these are meanings of the root of laughter. Likewise, Abraham's wife (when the fear went away from her and security came to her), she laughed (= her face flashed, sparkled, became clear, bright, appeared, blossomed). Perhaps the meaning of (laugh) is similar to it [53:43 and that He is the One Who makes people laugh and weep], meaning He makes happy, glad, satisfied, and pleased. Abraham’s wife was amazed at the good news of the child (and did not laugh at it); The Torah mentioned that Abraham’s wife, when she heard the good news of the child, (laughed) in disbelief: [Genesis/ 18: 10 and Sarah your wife will have a son.”... 12 So Sarah laughed to herself as she thought, “After I am worn out and my lord is old, will I now have this pleasure?”]. The truth is that she (did not laugh) at the good news, but was surprised and amazed: [11:72-73 She said, “Alas for me! How can I bear a child while I am an old woman, and this is my husband, an old man? This is a strange thing indeed!”. They said, “Are you amazed at the decree of Allah?] [51:29 His wife cried out loud, and struck her face [in astonishment] and said, “[I am] a barren old woman!”] So the People of the Book were confused about laughter (to remove fear and feel safe) with amazement (at hearing the good news of a child). The meaning of the name Isaac; The meaning of the name Isaac is (laughs), and the reason for naming him that is because of his mother's laughter. It seems that the angels were the ones who named him Isaac [11:71 So she laughed, so We gave her good tidings of Isaac]. Perhaps when they saw Abraham’s wife laughing (as a result of her fear disappearing and her feeling of security), it was as if they immediately said to her: You will give birth to someone who laughs (just as you are laughing now). And to clarify the meaning of the name Isaac, it is as if the angels, when they saw her happy at that moment (laughing), immediately said to her: You are (happy's mother). Why didn't Abraham laugh?; Women are generally more fearful than men and show their grief and are more listened to. It is not strange for a woman to wail or raise her voice in tears when a calamity befalls her. While men are generally more restrained, conceal their feelings, and keep their affairs under wraps. Abraham felt fear, but not as intensely as his wife's fear, and we must not forget the strength of Abraham's faith and his great courage. Why did the People of the Book not know the reason for Abraham's wife's laughter? The main reason is that they lost the text (the angels not eating): [11:70-71 When he saw their hands not reaching the food, he became suspicious and felt scared of them. They said, “Do not be scared. We have been sent to the people of Lot.” His wife was standing by and laughed] [51:27 and placed it before them and said, “Will you not eat?”] Add to that that the People of the Book made the angels eat as guests of Abraham, and also as guests of Lot. Thus, the ignorance of the rabbis (fear) of Abraham and his wife (which was caused by the guests not eating), IS A NECESSARY TEXT TO KNOW THE REAL REASON FOR THE LAUGHTER OF ISAAC'S MOTHER (which is the disappearance of her fear, her feeling of security, and her joy and happiness with that, i.e. her laughter). Conclusion The laughter of Abraham's wife is summarized as follows: When her fear was gone and she felt secure, she laughed (= rejoiced and was happy). And when she laughed, she was given the good news of the birth of Isaac (which means: laughing).
There is a lesson for Christianity, Judaism and Islam as none are legitimate as they do not follow the Torah of Abraham. The Mosaic Jews were condemned by the law.
Jews are people. Some people suck. Please don't echo Nazi propaganda, it's dehumanizing and normalizes the mistreatment of Jews. We can point to horrible people from Christianity and Islam, but you'd agree that doesn't represent all Christians and Muslims, I hope.
So, according to your comment, Judaism is so worthless. It's there as evil to be avoided. But Christianity can't learn anything from Judaism it carries the core essence of Judaism’s evilness 😂!
After reading the Old Testament, I think I'll stick to Islam. The Quran is not harsh in tone compared to the Old Testament. Did God really write about Amalek killing women and children? That's enough for anyone to leave Judaism, but I truly believe that isn't true Judaism, but someone changing it to suit whatever narrative at the time.
@@samna789 1 lol the old testament God is the same as the new testament God so what's your beef with the new testament God assuming Jesus is God etc? 2 Which atheist Hindu or Buddhist thinks Yahweh is more evil than Allah? LOL
@nicbentulan I think you've misunderstood what I have written. As a muslim I believe God (Allah in Arabic, Ellah in Aramaic) sent the Torah to the Jews, the Gospel to the Christians and the final testament Quran to the Muslims. We all worship the same creator, the God of Abraham, Mosses, Jesus, Muhammed. So how about you give a little bit of respect to Allah (means God) instead if misunderstanding me and attacking Allah (god) in the process!!!
A great effort just to try to blend current so called Palestine with the historical/biblical narrative. Just out of curiosity, why was Aramaic not mentioned in your exposé as the major Semitic language of that region prior to the Arab invasion ? More importantly why were the first manuscripts of the Qur’an written in Syriac and not in Arabic that existed then ? The biases are palpable; and the use of Qur’anic texts to reinforce some points is futile since the word Palestine was never mentioned there. A touch of arrogance when insinuating that the Torah was an Arabic text before being altered. Hilarious really ! And BTW, the Qur’an never links Moses to the Torah but to a “book”.
▫️Did you know that Palestine/FLSTIN =🇵🇸 & its arabian KING "Abi-Melek" are mentioned in the original text of the Torah since when Abraham arrived it seeking refuge, long before the birth of Jacob (claimed renamed as Israel)? Genesis 26:1 states: Isaac went to Abi-Melek, 👉King of FLSTIN👈 Some claim that the word "פלשתים" is pronounced as "P-L-SH-T-I-M" and refers to the Philistines as "the Peleset," an ancient Greek Sea People who allegedly invaded the region post-1200 BC and later disappeared, thus disconnecting it from modern Arabian Palestinians. This hypothesis is FALSE and blatantly conflicts with Abraham's timeline (circa 1800 BC), though it remains a matter of scholarly debate. The translation should reflect the name of the land, not its inhabitants: "פ ל ש ת י ם" "ف ل س ط ي ن" The Torahic "פלשתים" and Arabic "فلسطين" are linguistically and orthographically aligned. Many words in the Torah have Arabic equivalents or roots (according to Strong's Concordance), suggesting a linguistic connection. Many Torahic words match Arabic pronunciation despite complex morphological structures. The Quran mentions that the Torah was originally in the Arabic tongue before being altered (see 3:78, 4:46, and 46:12). Q. 46:12: "And before it was the Book of Moses as a guide and a mercy. And this is a 👉 confirming Book 👈 👉 in the Arabic tongue 👈." The term "פלשתים" ("FLSTIN") is mentioned 11 times in the Torah and nearly 250 times in the Bible. The first Torahic mention of "FLSTIN" is in Genesis 10 as a PROPER NOUN within the context of Noah's sons and refers to a descendant of Mizraim (Egypt) through Casluhim ✅️, not from Caphtor (Crete) as claimed. By analyzing the Torahic text where "פלשתים" is mentioned and comparing it with the corresponding Arabic text, it becomes clear that the words and sentence structures align with Arabic linguistics on several levels. Example: Genesis 21:34 (consonants only) ☝️ "בארץ" (b-e-r-ṣ) 👈 "פלשתים" (ph-l-š-t-î-m) Arabic equivalent: ☝️ "بأرض" (b-e-r-ḍ) 👈 "فلسطين" (f-l-s-ṭ-ī-n) The correct translation should be: "In the land of FLSTIN" ✔️, meaning inside the territory of FLSTIN, not 'in the land of the Philistines.' Since vowel points were added later by the Masoretes, "פ" could be "F" and "ש" could be "S." While the suffix "-im" in Hebrew commonly indicates plurality, in the case of "פלשתים" (Flst:im), it should be considered part of the name, similar to "Mizra-im," and how the Arabic suffix "-in" is used in "Flst:in" (Palestine). The absence of the definite article "ה" (ha-) further supports the interpretation that "פלשתים" (Flstin) is a proper noun referring to the land itself rather than a term for its inhabitants. Furthermore, the transliteration and translation of names across languages show that the Koine Greek term that appears in the Septuagint "Φυλιστιεὶμ" (Phylistim) reflects the Hebrew "פלשתים" confirming the read of "f" (ph) & the "s". Another variant, "Φυλιστῖνοι" (Phulistînoi), emerges from forms like "Φυλιστιίμ" (Phulistiím) and "Φυλιστιείμ" (Phulistieím). This underscores the connection to the Arabic pronunciation "FLSTIN", where the suffix "-in" aligns with the Arabic form, as opposed to the Hebrew "-im". The comparison of the words "בארץ" and "بأرض" (both meaning 'in the land of') also shows a phonetic similarity with Arabic pronunciation: "b-e-r-ṣ" and "b-e-r-ḍ." The similarities in the sentence between the Torahic text & the Arabic text are multifaceted, involving orthographic, graphemic, phonetic, phonological, morphological, and semantic dimensions. These similarities highlight both the visual and sound correspondences between the Hebrew and Arabic terms, as well as their deeper linguistic and historical connections. 'F-L-S-T-I-N' in Arabic script represents consonants without vocalic diacritics, subject to accent variations. In Latin, 'P' and 'PH' correspond to the Arabic 'F,' making 'Palestine' the Latin version of 'FLSTIN,' similar to 'Pilipinas - Philippines - Filipin.' "Abi-Melek" (meaning "father of a king") reflects Arabic and Semitic regional roots, indicating long-standing cultural integration. This suggests that the Philistines in the Torah were INDIGENOUS and well-established people in the region, not foreign invaders. ℹ️ The Amarna Letters (EA 147) also support this by mentioning a regional ruler with a related name, "Abi-Milki". 🙌 The gospelly phrases: 🟨"Tali-tha cumi" and 🟩"E-phpha-t-h-a", resemble the Arabic phrases 🟨“تعالي ذا، قومي” (taʿālī thā, qūmī): "Come here, get up," and 🟩“افتحا" (i-f-t-ḥ-ā): "be open" (addressing both eyes). Both phrases share structural, linguistic, and vocabulary similarities with Arabic, confirming that Jesus spoke Arabic too. The expressions "Land of Israel" and "Jerusalem" are ❌️NEVER mentioned in the original text of the Torah. "Israel" is ❌️NEVER mentioned as a land in the Quran either. 🔳 In the Quran, the term 🔷️"Children of Israel" refers broadly to a group that received prophets and divine guidance, not exclusively to Jews. Moses urged them to rely on God and be 👉Muslims, so to enter the Holy Land (5:20-21, 10:84). Among them, some believed in Jesus & attained faith while others rejected him & denied (61:14). The Quran highlights that Jews and polytheists are the most hostile towards believers, while "Nasara" (Christians) are more amicable (5:82). 💢 PS: Not a single verse in the Quran confirms that Jacob is the same figure as Israel. The lecture titled "The Rise of Arabic" by Dr. Ahmad Al-Jallad on TH-cam presents epigraphic and archaeological evidence indicating the presence of the Arabic language long before the revelation of the Quran in the region.
@@M1idx A great effort just to try to blend current so called Palestine with the historical/biblical narrative. Just out of curiosity, why was Aramaic not mentioned in your exposé as the major Semitic language of that region prior to the Arab invasion ? More importantly why were the first manuscripts of the Qur’an written in Syriac and not in Arabic that existed then ? The biases are palpable; and the use of Qur’anic texts to reinforce some points is futile since the word Palestine was never mentioned there. A touch of arrogance when insinuating that the Torah was an Arabic text before being altered. Hilarious really ! And BTW, the Qur’an never links Moses to the Torah but to a “book”.
@jma7600 Arabic is a very ancient language though in the past it was written with a different script such as Thamudic script. Genesis Chapter 11 בְּרֵאשִׁית יב וְאַרְפַּכְשַׁד חַי, חָמֵשׁ וּשְׁלֹשִׁים שָׁנָה; וַיּוֹלֶד, אֶת-שָׁלַח. 12 And Arpachshad lived five and thirty years, and begot Shelah. יג וַיְחִי אַרְפַּכְשַׁד, אַחֲרֵי הוֹלִידוֹ אֶת-שֶׁלַח, שָׁלֹשׁ שָׁנִים, וְאַרְבַּע מֵאוֹת שָׁנָה; וַיּוֹלֶד בָּנִים, וּבָנוֹת. {ס} 13 And Arpachshad lived after he begot Shelah four hundred and three years, and begot sons and daughters. {S} יד וְשֶׁלַח חַי, שְׁלֹשִׁים שָׁנָה; וַיּוֹלֶד, אֶת-עֵבֶר. 14 And Shelah lived thirty years, and begot Eber. טו וַיְחִי-שֶׁלַח, אַחֲרֵי הוֹלִידוֹ אֶת-עֵבֶר, שָׁלֹשׁ שָׁנִים, וְאַרְבַּע מֵאוֹת שָׁנָה; וַיּוֹלֶד בָּנִים, וּבָנוֹת. {ס} 15 And Shelah lived after he begot Eber four hundred and three years, and begot sons and daughters. These descendants صالح and عابر are the amongst the ancient Arabs of the people of عاد and ثمود. They existed in the region generations before Abraham إبراهيم. The latter Arabs came from the descendants of Ishmael.
@@julietabraham476 46:12: And before it was the book of Moses, a guide and a mercy. And this is 👉a confirming book in the Arabic tongue. 👈 🔴 Did you know that Palestine/FLSTIN =🇵🇸 & its arabian KING "Abi-Melek" are mentioned in the original text of the Torah since when Abraham arrived it seeking refuge, chronologically long before the birth of Jacob (claimed renamed as Israel)? Genesis 26:1 states: Isaac went to Abi-Melek, 👉King of FLSTIN👈 Some claim that the word "פלשתים" is pronounced as "P-L-SH-T-I-M" and refers to the Philistines as "the Peleset," an ancient Greek Sea People who allegedly invaded the region post-1200 BC and later disappeared, thus disconnecting it from modern Arabian Palestinians. This hypothesis is FALSE and blatantly conflicts with Abraham's timeline (circa 1800 BC), though it remains a matter of scholarly debate. The translation should reflect the name of the land, not its inhabitants: "פ ל ש ת י ם" "ف ل س ط ي ن" The Torahic "פלשתים" and Arabic "فلسطين" are linguistically and orthographically aligned. Many words in the Torah have Arabic equivalents or roots (according to Strong's Concordance), suggesting a linguistic connection. Many Torahic words match Arabic pronunciation despite complex morphological structures. The Quran mentions that the Torah was originally in the Arabic tongue before being altered (see 3:78, 4:46, and 46:12). Q. 46:12: "And before it was the Book of Moses as a guide and a mercy. And this is a 👉 confirming Book 👈 👉 in the Arabic tongue 👈." The term "פלשתים" ("FLSTIN") is mentioned 11 times in the Torah and nearly 250 times in the Bible. The first Torahic mention of "FLSTIN" is in Genesis 10 as a PROPER NOUN within the context of Noah's sons and refers to a descendant of Mizraim (Egypt) through Casluhim ✅️, not from Caphtor (Crete) as claimed. By analyzing the Torahic text where "פלשתים" is mentioned and comparing it with the corresponding Arabic text, it becomes clear that the words and sentence structures align with Arabic linguistics on several levels. Example: Genesis 21:34 (consonants only) ☝️ "בארץ" (b-e-r-ṣ) 👈 "פלשתים" (ph-l-š-t-î-m) Arabic equivalent: ☝️ "بأرض" (b-e-r-ḍ) 👈 "فلسطين" (f-l-s-ṭ-ī-n) The correct translation should be: "In the land of FLSTIN" ✔️, meaning inside the territory of FLSTIN, not 'in the land of the Philistines.' Since vowel points were added later by the Masoretes, "פ" could be "F" and "ש" could be "S." While the suffix "-im" in Hebrew commonly indicates plurality, in the case of "פלשתים" (Flst:im), it should be considered part of the name, similar to "Mizra-im," and how the Arabic suffix "-in" is used in "Flst:in" (Palestine). The absence of the definite article "ה" (ha-) further supports the interpretation that "פלשתים" (Flstin) is a proper noun referring to the land itself rather than a term for its inhabitants. Furthermore, the transliteration and translation of names across languages show that the Koine Greek term that appears in the Septuagint "Φυλιστιεὶμ" (Phylistim) reflects the Hebrew "פלשתים" confirming the read of "f" (ph) & the "s". Another variant, "Φυλιστῖνοι" (Phulistînoi), emerges from forms like "Φυλιστιίμ" (Phulistiím) and "Φυλιστιείμ" (Phulistieím). This underscores the connection to the Arabic pronunciation "FLSTIN", where the suffix "-in" aligns with the Arabic form, as opposed to the Hebrew "-im". The comparison of the words "בארץ" and "بأرض" (both meaning 'in the land of') also shows a phonetic similarity with Arabic pronunciation: "b-e-r-ṣ" and "b-e-r-ḍ." The similarities in the sentence between the Torahic text & the Arabic text are multifaceted, involving orthographic, graphemic, phonetic, phonological, morphological, and semantic dimensions. These similarities highlight both the visual and sound correspondences between the Hebrew and Arabic terms, as well as their deeper linguistic and historical connections. 'F-L-S-T-I-N' in Arabic script represents consonants without vocalic diacritics, subject to accent variations. In Latin, 'P' and 'PH' correspond to the Arabic 'F,' making 'Palestine' the Latin version of 'FLSTIN,' similar to 'Pilipinas - Philippines - Filipin.' "Abi-Melek" (meaning "father of a king") reflects Arabic and Semitic regional roots, indicating long-standing cultural integration. This suggests that the Philistines in the Torah were INDIGENOUS and well-established people in the region, not foreign invaders. ℹ️ The Amarna Letters (EA 147) also support this by mentioning a regional ruler with a related name, "Abi-Milki". 🙌 The gospelly phrases: 🟨"Tali-tha cumi" and 🟩"E-phpha-t-h-a", resemble the Arabic phrases 🟨“تعالي ذا، قومي” (taʿālī thā, qūmī): "Come here, get up," and 🟩“افتحا" (i-f-t-ḥ-ā): "be open" (addressing both eyes). Both phrases share structural, linguistic, and vocabulary similarities with Arabic, confirming that Jesus spoke Arabic too. The expressions "Land of Israel" and "Jerusalem" are ❌️NEVER mentioned in the original text of the Torah. "Israel" is ❌️NEVER mentioned as a land in the Quran either. 🔳 In the Quran, the term 🔷️"Children of Israel" refers broadly to a group that received prophets and divine guidance, not exclusively to Jews. Moses urged them to rely on God and be 👉Muslims, so to enter the Holy Land (5:20-21, 10:84). Among them, some believed in Jesus & attained faith while others rejected him & denied (61:14). The Quran highlights that Jews and polytheists are the most hostile towards believers, while "Nasara" (Christians) are more amicable (5:82). 💢 PS: Not a single verse in the Quran confirms that Jacob is the same figure as Israel. The lecture titled "The Rise of Arabic" by Dr. Ahmad Al-Jallad on TH-cam presents epigraphic and archaeological evidence indicating the presence of the Arabic language long before the revelation of the Quran in the region.
![Mustafa Akyol [II]: The Islamic Moses | The Biblical Prophet Through Muslim Eyes](http://i.ytimg.com/vi/YGX1mLW1Cfw/mqdefault.jpg)
Always interesting to listen to your conversation with your guests.
It is always very interesting and informative.
Keep up the good work👍
Greetings from the Netherlands
I loved this discussion! Different religions should understand and learn from each other so that we can all grow together
@@jomamasmama9696 why most non-Christians side with Christianity over Islam? Which action of Hamas Hezbollah Houthis ISIS Al-Qaeda et al would Mohammed DISAPPROVE?
A number of the comments here validate the concerns of the RaMBaM when he limited the presentation of Torah to Christians and Muslims. A Jew could teach a Christian from a limited portion of Torah in order to disprove Christian assertions about it, or if the Christian was considering conversion. However, he forbade teaching any Torah to Muslims because the belief that it was falsified was already ubiquitous among Muslims.
@@TomTimes5 Ummmm, no. You seem to have missed a rather important distinction: Jews and Christians do *not* believe the same things, but Christians do accept Jewish scripture and so a Jew could use the Torah as a mutually accepted reference. On the other hand, a Jew debating with a Muslim could not draw premises from the Torah, as most Muslims do not accept its authenticity and authority. It would be like using a science textbook to argue with a flat-earther, or any canonical religious to argue with an atheist.
@@dkf343ohh I see interesting
It is "ubiquitous" because it is asserted in Tanach before any other subsequent revelation:
Jeremiah Chapter 8 יִרְמְיָהוּ
ח אֵיכָה תֹאמְרוּ חֲכָמִים אֲנַחְנוּ, וְתוֹרַת יְהוָה אִתָּנוּ; אָכֵן הִנֵּה לַשֶּׁקֶר עָשָׂה, עֵט שֶׁקֶר סֹפְרִים.
8 How do ye say: 'We are wise, and the Law of the LORD is with us'? Lo, certainly in vain hath wrought the vain pen of the scribes.
Notice the specific use of (וְתוֹרַת).
@holyfool343 No I think this is not entirely the case. Christians have exegesis on Tanach that is unacceptable to the Jewish faith. But there are many verses in Tanach which are quite coherent with the Muslim faith.
Muslims however cannot accept the accusations of adultery, incest, intoxication, the practice of magic etc. Against the prophets which can be found in Tanach.
One of the core reasons why a final revelation was provided to mankind was to absolve those noble prophets from the accusations against them in the scripture version we have today.
When will you compare what the Bible and Quran say about the Jews
Given the fact that Jews have been the most persecuted by Christians as lambs not including the great pact of Vatican with Hitler and it's indifference to the 6 million Jews who got executed and horrible torture of centuries , I would say that whatever christianity is , it is not of christ either. The conflict of muslims with Jews is recent atleast, and in the past Jews were much more safe under them. As it is said in the gospels you will know them by their fruits and guess what the fruits of this western religion that started this blackmail of salvation which raped christ of his purity with its dogmas and western ego, I would say leave them the fuck alone. Haven't u read the gospel of john, it is written directly that Jews killed Jesus. Church has been the greatest anti christ force on earth and Christians the most genocidal in history ( lol they call themselves of christ).u guys are still playing that way , Islam is just ur younger brother who now challenges u. Whosoever Jesus was , definitely I can say he was anything but what christianity says he was and whatever islam says as well. Leave the Jews and Jesus alone.
The Quran calls Jews "believers" unless they are transgressors and evil doers.
You probably just mean the Quran
@@jacobortega3424 The Quran says that the Jews are "believers" unless they are transgressors or evil doers.
@@jacobortega3424 the Christian new testament has a lot of antisemitism, including notions of Pharisees knowing the truth (Jesus being the messiah) but being purposely malicious, and of course the claim of deicide. As an ex Catholic I can tell you I grew up learning Judaism from this caricature even after the horrors of the Holocaust.
Edit: clarification
Being a moslem, I will say Nothing really.....!!!!!
The history of the Jewish people speak for itself..... 😢😢😢
The chosen people are not defined by ethnicity but by their faith in Allah alone. Those truly chosen are believers who have upheld the teachings of Allah, tracing back to the prophet Abraham, followed by the children of Jacob (Israel), and continuing through to Jesus and the final prophet, Muhammad (peace be upon them), along with all who have faithfully followed them. This excludes those who strayed from their prophets' messages to worship other entities, whether the Calf, the Cross, or the Imams.
In Islam, Mary and Jesus are mentioned with special reverence. In Judaism its the complete opposite
Reverence is to deny that Jesus claimed to be divine and started a false religion. Cool story bro. Islam is the exact opposite of Christianity by adding Jesus in Islam and making Jesus completely irrelevant and abrogated by Mohammed. Judaism is the religion of Jesus & Mary. Islam is the religion of perv Pedo Mohammed.
@kb4432
Give me a break. That is not a compliment to Islam. The Qur'an evolved in a milieu that wanted to swoon Near Eastern theists of a particular time period. There is no reason to speak of Mary or Jesus with reverence unless you want grab the ears of people.
@@paulthomas281amen. 2 Corinthians 11:3-4 right?
I don’t think it’s in good taste for Jews to be trying to teach others at this moment in history. Judaism and Jews in need of exercising introspection and reform at this moment in time.
Why not ? Is there a time line on God’s wisdom and teachings ?
@@jma7600 Your first assumption is that Judaism is divine in its wisdom. Others who aren’t Jews won’t necessarily agree. Furthermore, don’t pretend you don’t know there’s a genocide happening right now, led by Jews. If any community needs to exercise humility and restraint at this time, it’s Jews. Nobody wants to be “taught” while they’re being brutalized and slaughtered.
@@Chasee445
For starters, Judaism and Jews are two different things. You seem to conflate them both in your message.
It is not for me or you to decide what is and isn’t divine. Furthermore it is not anyone’s place to determine what people should and shouldn’t do at any point of time.
What you call genocide and bad taste is totally subjective. The rest of the world doesn’t share your view.
Israel (not Judaism and not the Jews) has the right to retaliate and defend its sovereign country and its people. The real aggressors are the ones chanting genocidal slogans like “from the river to the sea”.
I totally understand that sometimes it is hard to keep an honest perspective when being “brutalised”.
I couldn't agree more with you, just as we feel about Salafism, so should we about zionism.
I didn’t realize Jews were the only people to engage in war over the last 100 years. Sorry
WHAT MADE ISAAC'S MOTHER LAUGH?
11:70-71: They said, “Do not be scared. We have been sent to the people of Lot.” His wife was standing by and laughed [Surah Hūd]
The Torah agreed with the Qur'an that Isaac, was named after his mother's laughter. However, the Qur'an differed from the People of the Book's Torah regarding the reason for Isaac's mother's laughter. The writers of the Torah claimed that Isaac's mother laughed (in amazement and astonishment) when she heard the good news of Isaac, because she could not believe that he would be born to them while they were old and infirm, and she was barren and sterile. They also mentioned that Abraham (a year before his wife's laughter) also laughed in amazement at the good news. Rather, they made everyone who heard that laugh in amazement and astonishment. So, for the People of the Book, laughter is because of the good news.
The Qur'an's explanation of the reason for Abraham's wife's laughter;
11:69-71: And in a short while he brought a roasted calf. When he saw their hands not reaching the food, he became suspicious and felt scared of them. They said, “Do not be scared. We have been sent to the people of Lot.” His wife was standing by and laughed, then We gave her glad tidings of [the birth of] Isaac and Jacob after Isaac. [Surah Hūd]
Laughter (as the Qur'an explained) is not from hearing the good news and has no relation to it, because Abraham's wife laughed (before) her good news [fadahikat fabashsharnaahaa]. The "faa" in (Fabashrnaha) indicates order and sequence. It is as if the verse is telling us that when the wife laughed, the angels turned to her and gave her good news of a child. The Torah has the order (1- good news, 2- laughter), while the order of the Qur’an is (1- laughter, 2- good news), as in the verse [11:71 So she laughed, so We gave her good news].
The word (fadahikat/So she laughed) has a causal faa', so we have to look at what (before it) to know what caused the laughter. We find that what precedes the command to laugh (and his wife was standing, so she laughed), is the command to fear: (They said, "Do not fear. Indeed, we have been sent to the people of Lot." It turns out that the wife’s laughter was a laugh of (security, joy, happiness, and pleasure), because her fear was gone (Do not fear), and because she knew that her husband’s guests were God’s messengers (Indeed, We have been sent). So, according to the Qur’an: laughter is due to the disappearance of fear.
The benefit of the phrase [and his wife is standing];
The phrase of the verse [and his wife was standing] indicates that the wife was (present and witnessing) what was happening between her husband and his guest, so she saw them refraining from eating, and she shared her husband's anxiety and fear [15:52 He said, “We are afraid of you.”/[51:28 He felt apprehensive about them.]/ [11:70 he became suspicious and felt scared of them.].
So because she was standing (= standing, looking and observing), she was like her husband [11:74 When the shock of fear left Abraham] terrified and afraid (thinking evil of the guests). But when she heard, while she was present and witnessing (standing), the words of the angels [15:53 They said, “Do not be afraid/51:28 They said, “Do not be afraid,”], and she heard their words [11:70 We have been sent to the people of Lot.”], she knew then that they were messengers of God, so she was happy and delighted and pleased and felt secure and reassured and the fear left her, so she laughed (a laugh of joy, happiness, delight and contentment) because her fear had disappeared and she felt secure.
Because she was (standing), that is, present, watching and hearing what was happening, she was consequently afraid, like her husband (that the guests would not touch the food), and when her fear went away (to reassure them of the angels), she laughed (rejoiced in the security).
The laughter of the winners is not far from the laughter of Abraham's wife;
This is how the faces of the believers will be on the Day of Resurrection [80:39 cheerful and rejoicing;], their faces will laugh with joy, pleasure, delight, contentment and happiness, because the fear has gone away from them and security has encompassed them. So the laughing faces on the Day of Resurrection are (the sparkling, clear, evident, bright, apparent, radiant), and all of these are meanings of the root of laughter. Likewise, Abraham's wife (when the fear went away from her and security came to her), she laughed (= her face flashed, sparkled, became clear, bright, appeared, blossomed). Perhaps the meaning of (laugh) is similar to it [53:43 and that He is the One Who makes people laugh and weep], meaning He makes happy, glad, satisfied, and pleased.
Abraham’s wife was amazed at the good news of the child (and did not laugh at it);
The Torah mentioned that Abraham’s wife, when she heard the good news of the child, (laughed) in disbelief:
[Genesis/ 18: 10 and Sarah your wife will have a son.”... 12 So Sarah laughed to herself as she thought, “After I am worn out and my lord is old, will I now have this pleasure?”].
The truth is that she (did not laugh) at the good news, but was surprised and amazed:
[11:72-73 She said, “Alas for me! How can I bear a child while I am an old woman, and this is my husband, an old man? This is a strange thing indeed!”. They said, “Are you amazed at the decree of Allah?]
[51:29 His wife cried out loud, and struck her face [in astonishment] and said, “[I am] a barren old woman!”]
So the People of the Book were confused about laughter (to remove fear and feel safe) with amazement (at hearing the good news of a child).
The meaning of the name Isaac;
The meaning of the name Isaac is (laughs), and the reason for naming him that is because of his mother's laughter. It seems that the angels were the ones who named him Isaac [11:71 So she laughed, so We gave her good tidings of Isaac]. Perhaps when they saw Abraham’s wife laughing (as a result of her fear disappearing and her feeling of security), it was as if they immediately said to her: You will give birth to someone who laughs (just as you are laughing now). And to clarify the meaning of the name Isaac, it is as if the angels, when they saw her happy at that moment (laughing), immediately said to her: You are (happy's mother).
Why didn't Abraham laugh?;
Women are generally more fearful than men and show their grief and are more listened to. It is not strange for a woman to wail or raise her voice in tears when a calamity befalls her. While men are generally more restrained, conceal their feelings, and keep their affairs under wraps. Abraham felt fear, but not as intensely as his wife's fear, and we must not forget the strength of Abraham's faith and his great courage.
Why did the People of the Book not know the reason for Abraham's wife's laughter?
The main reason is that they lost the text (the angels not eating):
[11:70-71 When he saw their hands not reaching the food, he became suspicious and felt scared of them. They said, “Do not be scared. We have been sent to the people of Lot.” His wife was standing by and laughed]
[51:27 and placed it before them and said, “Will you not eat?”]
Add to that that the People of the Book made the angels eat as guests of Abraham, and also as guests of Lot. Thus, the ignorance of the rabbis (fear) of Abraham and his wife (which was caused by the guests not eating), IS A NECESSARY TEXT TO KNOW THE REAL REASON FOR THE LAUGHTER OF ISAAC'S MOTHER (which is the disappearance of her fear, her feeling of security, and her joy and happiness with that, i.e. her laughter).
Conclusion
The laughter of Abraham's wife is summarized as follows:
When her fear was gone and she felt secure, she laughed (= rejoiced and was happy).
And when she laughed, she was given the good news of the birth of Isaac (which means: laughing).
There is a lesson for Christianity, Judaism and Islam as none are legitimate as they do not follow the Torah of Abraham. The Mosaic Jews were condemned by the law.
We can learn how to rebel against God and tarnish our religion. Great lesson 😂
They didn’t accept Jesus (peace be upon him), so there isn't anything really i personally want to learn from them.
I know....they can learn how to dehumanize others, and how to love money and power.
And here you are, dehumanizing others. Ironic.
Jews are people. Some people suck. Please don't echo Nazi propaganda, it's dehumanizing and normalizes the mistreatment of Jews. We can point to horrible people from Christianity and Islam, but you'd agree that doesn't represent all Christians and Muslims, I hope.
What can Muslims learn from Judaism except to leave Islam?
However, what can't Christians learn from Judaism?
😂 cope Harder buddy
So, according to your comment, Judaism is so worthless. It's there as evil to be avoided. But Christianity can't learn anything from Judaism it carries the core essence of Judaism’s evilness 😂!
After reading the Old Testament, I think I'll stick to Islam. The Quran is not harsh in tone compared to the Old Testament. Did God really write about Amalek killing women and children? That's enough for anyone to leave Judaism, but I truly believe that isn't true Judaism, but someone changing it to suit whatever narrative at the time.
@@samna789 1
lol the old testament God is the same as the new testament God so what's your beef with the new testament God assuming Jesus is God etc?
2
Which atheist Hindu or Buddhist thinks Yahweh is more evil than Allah? LOL
@nicbentulan I think you've misunderstood what I have written. As a muslim I believe God (Allah in Arabic, Ellah in Aramaic) sent the Torah to the Jews, the Gospel to the Christians and the final testament Quran to the Muslims.
We all worship the same creator, the God of Abraham, Mosses, Jesus, Muhammed.
So how about you give a little bit of respect to Allah (means God) instead if misunderstanding me and attacking Allah (god) in the process!!!
A great effort just to try to blend current so called Palestine with the historical/biblical narrative. Just out of curiosity, why was Aramaic not mentioned in your exposé as the major Semitic language of that region prior to the Arab invasion ? More importantly why were the first manuscripts of the Qur’an written in Syriac and not in Arabic that existed then ?
The biases are palpable; and the use of Qur’anic texts to reinforce some points is futile since the word Palestine was never mentioned there. A touch of arrogance when insinuating that the Torah was an Arabic text before being altered. Hilarious really ! And BTW, the Qur’an never links Moses to the Torah but to a “book”.
The Syriac interpretation of the Quran remains a fringe theory.
Have you read the Quran?
Quran 62:6: Say, “O you who have Judaized, if you claim to be the allies of God out of the humankind,
☝️then wish for death
☝️if you are sincere"
▫️Did you know that Palestine/FLSTIN =🇵🇸 & its arabian KING "Abi-Melek" are mentioned in the original text of the Torah since when Abraham arrived it seeking refuge, long before the birth of Jacob (claimed renamed as Israel)?
Genesis 26:1 states:
Isaac went to Abi-Melek,
👉King of FLSTIN👈
Some claim that the word "פלשתים" is pronounced as "P-L-SH-T-I-M" and refers to the Philistines as "the Peleset," an ancient Greek Sea People who allegedly invaded the region post-1200 BC and later disappeared, thus disconnecting it from modern Arabian Palestinians.
This hypothesis is FALSE and blatantly conflicts with Abraham's timeline (circa 1800 BC), though it remains a matter of scholarly debate.
The translation should reflect the name of the land, not its inhabitants:
"פ ל ש ת י ם"
"ف ل س ط ي ن"
The Torahic "פלשתים" and Arabic "فلسطين" are linguistically and orthographically aligned.
Many words in the Torah have Arabic equivalents or roots (according to Strong's Concordance), suggesting a linguistic connection.
Many Torahic words match Arabic pronunciation despite complex morphological structures.
The Quran mentions that the Torah was originally in the Arabic tongue before being altered (see 3:78, 4:46, and 46:12).
Q. 46:12:
"And before it was the Book of Moses as a guide and a mercy. And this is a
👉 confirming Book 👈
👉 in the Arabic tongue 👈."
The term "פלשתים" ("FLSTIN") is mentioned 11 times in the Torah and nearly 250 times in the Bible.
The first Torahic mention of "FLSTIN" is in Genesis 10 as a PROPER NOUN within the context of Noah's sons and refers to a descendant of Mizraim (Egypt) through Casluhim ✅️, not from Caphtor (Crete) as claimed.
By analyzing the Torahic text where "פלשתים" is mentioned and comparing it with the corresponding Arabic text, it becomes clear that the words and sentence structures align with Arabic linguistics on several levels.
Example: Genesis 21:34 (consonants only)
☝️ "בארץ" (b-e-r-ṣ)
👈 "פלשתים" (ph-l-š-t-î-m)
Arabic equivalent:
☝️ "بأرض" (b-e-r-ḍ)
👈 "فلسطين" (f-l-s-ṭ-ī-n)
The correct translation should be: "In the land of FLSTIN" ✔️, meaning inside the territory of FLSTIN, not 'in the land of the Philistines.'
Since vowel points were added later by the Masoretes, "פ" could be "F" and "ש" could be "S."
While the suffix "-im" in Hebrew commonly indicates plurality, in the case of "פלשתים" (Flst:im), it should be considered part of the name, similar to "Mizra-im," and how the Arabic suffix "-in" is used in "Flst:in" (Palestine).
The absence of the definite article "ה" (ha-) further supports the interpretation that "פלשתים" (Flstin) is a proper noun referring to the land itself rather than a term for its inhabitants.
Furthermore, the transliteration and translation of names across languages show that the Koine Greek term that appears in the Septuagint "Φυλιστιεὶμ" (Phylistim) reflects the Hebrew "פלשתים" confirming the read of "f" (ph) & the "s". Another variant, "Φυλιστῖνοι" (Phulistînoi), emerges from forms like "Φυλιστιίμ" (Phulistiím) and "Φυλιστιείμ" (Phulistieím). This underscores the connection to the Arabic pronunciation "FLSTIN", where the suffix "-in" aligns with the Arabic form, as opposed to the Hebrew "-im".
The comparison of the words "בארץ" and "بأرض" (both meaning 'in the land of') also shows a phonetic similarity with Arabic pronunciation: "b-e-r-ṣ" and "b-e-r-ḍ."
The similarities in the sentence between the Torahic text & the Arabic text are multifaceted, involving orthographic, graphemic, phonetic, phonological, morphological, and semantic dimensions. These similarities highlight both the visual and sound correspondences between the Hebrew and Arabic terms, as well as their deeper linguistic and historical connections.
'F-L-S-T-I-N' in Arabic script represents consonants without vocalic diacritics, subject to accent variations.
In Latin, 'P' and 'PH' correspond to the Arabic 'F,' making 'Palestine' the Latin version of 'FLSTIN,' similar to 'Pilipinas - Philippines - Filipin.'
"Abi-Melek" (meaning "father of a king") reflects Arabic and Semitic regional roots, indicating long-standing cultural integration. This suggests that the Philistines in the Torah were INDIGENOUS and well-established people in the region, not foreign invaders.
ℹ️ The Amarna Letters (EA 147) also support this by mentioning a regional ruler with a related name, "Abi-Milki".
🙌 The gospelly phrases:
🟨"Tali-tha cumi" and
🟩"E-phpha-t-h-a",
resemble the Arabic phrases
🟨“تعالي ذا، قومي” (taʿālī thā, qūmī):
"Come here, get up," and
🟩“افتحا" (i-f-t-ḥ-ā):
"be open" (addressing both eyes).
Both phrases share structural, linguistic, and vocabulary similarities with Arabic, confirming that Jesus spoke Arabic too.
The expressions "Land of Israel" and "Jerusalem" are ❌️NEVER mentioned in the original text of the Torah.
"Israel" is ❌️NEVER mentioned as a land in the Quran either.
🔳 In the Quran, the term 🔷️"Children of Israel" refers broadly to a group that received prophets and divine guidance, not exclusively to Jews. Moses urged them to rely on God and be 👉Muslims, so to enter the Holy Land (5:20-21, 10:84). Among them, some believed in Jesus & attained faith while others rejected him & denied (61:14). The Quran highlights that Jews and polytheists are the most hostile towards believers, while "Nasara" (Christians) are more amicable (5:82).
💢 PS: Not a single verse in the Quran confirms that Jacob is the same figure as Israel.
The lecture titled "The Rise of Arabic" by Dr. Ahmad Al-Jallad on TH-cam presents epigraphic and archaeological evidence indicating the presence of the Arabic language long before the revelation of the Quran in the region.
@@M1idx
A great effort just to try to blend current so called Palestine with the historical/biblical narrative. Just out of curiosity, why was Aramaic not mentioned in your exposé as the major Semitic language of that region prior to the Arab invasion ? More importantly why were the first manuscripts of the Qur’an written in Syriac and not in Arabic that existed then ?
The biases are palpable; and the use of Qur’anic texts to reinforce some points is futile since the word Palestine was never mentioned there. A touch of arrogance when insinuating that the Torah was an Arabic text before being altered. Hilarious really ! And BTW, the Qur’an never links Moses to the Torah but to a “book”.
@@jma7600I don't think you did your homework, ?
@jma7600 Arabic is a very ancient language though in the past it was written with a different script such as Thamudic script.
Genesis Chapter 11 בְּרֵאשִׁית
יב וְאַרְפַּכְשַׁד חַי, חָמֵשׁ וּשְׁלֹשִׁים שָׁנָה; וַיּוֹלֶד, אֶת-שָׁלַח.
12 And Arpachshad lived five and thirty years, and begot Shelah.
יג וַיְחִי אַרְפַּכְשַׁד, אַחֲרֵי הוֹלִידוֹ אֶת-שֶׁלַח, שָׁלֹשׁ שָׁנִים, וְאַרְבַּע מֵאוֹת שָׁנָה; וַיּוֹלֶד בָּנִים, וּבָנוֹת. {ס}
13 And Arpachshad lived after he begot Shelah four hundred and three years, and begot sons and daughters. {S}
יד וְשֶׁלַח חַי, שְׁלֹשִׁים שָׁנָה; וַיּוֹלֶד, אֶת-עֵבֶר.
14 And Shelah lived thirty years, and begot Eber.
טו וַיְחִי-שֶׁלַח, אַחֲרֵי הוֹלִידוֹ אֶת-עֵבֶר, שָׁלֹשׁ שָׁנִים, וְאַרְבַּע מֵאוֹת שָׁנָה; וַיּוֹלֶד בָּנִים, וּבָנוֹת. {ס}
15 And Shelah lived after he begot Eber four hundred and three years, and begot sons and daughters.
These descendants صالح and عابر are the amongst the ancient Arabs of the people of عاد and ثمود. They existed in the region generations before Abraham إبراهيم. The latter Arabs came from the descendants of Ishmael.
Acc. to Quran. 46:12: the Torah was originally revealed in 👉Arabic tongue
No
It says it confirms it in the Arabic tongue.Not what you are saying that the Torah was originally in the Arabic tongue😅😅😅 stop twisting scriptures.
@@julietabraham476 46:12: And before it was the book of Moses, a guide and a mercy. And this is 👉a confirming book in the Arabic tongue. 👈
🔴 Did you know that Palestine/FLSTIN =🇵🇸 & its arabian KING "Abi-Melek" are mentioned in the original text of the Torah since when Abraham arrived it seeking refuge, chronologically long before the birth of Jacob (claimed renamed as Israel)?
Genesis 26:1 states:
Isaac went to Abi-Melek,
👉King of FLSTIN👈
Some claim that the word "פלשתים" is pronounced as "P-L-SH-T-I-M" and refers to the Philistines as "the Peleset," an ancient Greek Sea People who allegedly invaded the region post-1200 BC and later disappeared, thus disconnecting it from modern Arabian Palestinians.
This hypothesis is FALSE and blatantly conflicts with Abraham's timeline (circa 1800 BC), though it remains a matter of scholarly debate.
The translation should reflect the name of the land, not its inhabitants:
"פ ל ש ת י ם"
"ف ل س ط ي ن"
The Torahic "פלשתים" and Arabic "فلسطين" are linguistically and orthographically aligned.
Many words in the Torah have Arabic equivalents or roots (according to Strong's Concordance), suggesting a linguistic connection.
Many Torahic words match Arabic pronunciation despite complex morphological structures.
The Quran mentions that the Torah was originally in the Arabic tongue before being altered (see 3:78, 4:46, and 46:12).
Q. 46:12:
"And before it was the Book of Moses as a guide and a mercy. And this is a
👉 confirming Book 👈
👉 in the Arabic tongue 👈."
The term "פלשתים" ("FLSTIN") is mentioned 11 times in the Torah and nearly 250 times in the Bible.
The first Torahic mention of "FLSTIN" is in Genesis 10 as a PROPER NOUN within the context of Noah's sons and refers to a descendant of Mizraim (Egypt) through Casluhim ✅️, not from Caphtor (Crete) as claimed.
By analyzing the Torahic text where "פלשתים" is mentioned and comparing it with the corresponding Arabic text, it becomes clear that the words and sentence structures align with Arabic linguistics on several levels.
Example: Genesis 21:34 (consonants only)
☝️ "בארץ" (b-e-r-ṣ)
👈 "פלשתים" (ph-l-š-t-î-m)
Arabic equivalent:
☝️ "بأرض" (b-e-r-ḍ)
👈 "فلسطين" (f-l-s-ṭ-ī-n)
The correct translation should be: "In the land of FLSTIN" ✔️, meaning inside the territory of FLSTIN, not 'in the land of the Philistines.'
Since vowel points were added later by the Masoretes, "פ" could be "F" and "ש" could be "S."
While the suffix "-im" in Hebrew commonly indicates plurality, in the case of "פלשתים" (Flst:im), it should be considered part of the name, similar to "Mizra-im," and how the Arabic suffix "-in" is used in "Flst:in" (Palestine).
The absence of the definite article "ה" (ha-) further supports the interpretation that "פלשתים" (Flstin) is a proper noun referring to the land itself rather than a term for its inhabitants.
Furthermore, the transliteration and translation of names across languages show that the Koine Greek term that appears in the Septuagint "Φυλιστιεὶμ" (Phylistim) reflects the Hebrew "פלשתים" confirming the read of "f" (ph) & the "s". Another variant, "Φυλιστῖνοι" (Phulistînoi), emerges from forms like "Φυλιστιίμ" (Phulistiím) and "Φυλιστιείμ" (Phulistieím). This underscores the connection to the Arabic pronunciation "FLSTIN", where the suffix "-in" aligns with the Arabic form, as opposed to the Hebrew "-im".
The comparison of the words "בארץ" and "بأرض" (both meaning 'in the land of') also shows a phonetic similarity with Arabic pronunciation: "b-e-r-ṣ" and "b-e-r-ḍ."
The similarities in the sentence between the Torahic text & the Arabic text are multifaceted, involving orthographic, graphemic, phonetic, phonological, morphological, and semantic dimensions. These similarities highlight both the visual and sound correspondences between the Hebrew and Arabic terms, as well as their deeper linguistic and historical connections.
'F-L-S-T-I-N' in Arabic script represents consonants without vocalic diacritics, subject to accent variations.
In Latin, 'P' and 'PH' correspond to the Arabic 'F,' making 'Palestine' the Latin version of 'FLSTIN,' similar to 'Pilipinas - Philippines - Filipin.'
"Abi-Melek" (meaning "father of a king") reflects Arabic and Semitic regional roots, indicating long-standing cultural integration. This suggests that the Philistines in the Torah were INDIGENOUS and well-established people in the region, not foreign invaders.
ℹ️ The Amarna Letters (EA 147) also support this by mentioning a regional ruler with a related name, "Abi-Milki".
🙌 The gospelly phrases:
🟨"Tali-tha cumi" and
🟩"E-phpha-t-h-a",
resemble the Arabic phrases
🟨“تعالي ذا، قومي” (taʿālī thā, qūmī):
"Come here, get up," and
🟩“افتحا" (i-f-t-ḥ-ā):
"be open" (addressing both eyes).
Both phrases share structural, linguistic, and vocabulary similarities with Arabic, confirming that Jesus spoke Arabic too.
The expressions "Land of Israel" and "Jerusalem" are ❌️NEVER mentioned in the original text of the Torah.
"Israel" is ❌️NEVER mentioned as a land in the Quran either.
🔳 In the Quran, the term 🔷️"Children of Israel" refers broadly to a group that received prophets and divine guidance, not exclusively to Jews. Moses urged them to rely on God and be 👉Muslims, so to enter the Holy Land (5:20-21, 10:84). Among them, some believed in Jesus & attained faith while others rejected him & denied (61:14). The Quran highlights that Jews and polytheists are the most hostile towards believers, while "Nasara" (Christians) are more amicable (5:82).
💢 PS: Not a single verse in the Quran confirms that Jacob is the same figure as Israel.
The lecture titled "The Rise of Arabic" by Dr. Ahmad Al-Jallad on TH-cam presents epigraphic and archaeological evidence indicating the presence of the Arabic language long before the revelation of the Quran in the region.