LATEST PROMETRIC EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWER / 100 QUESTIONS TO EXPECT IN SAUDI/KUWAIT/OMAN/DHA/QATAR
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- เผยแพร่เมื่อ 21 ก.ย. 2024
- LATEST PROMETRIC EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWER / 100 QUESTIONS TO EXPECT IN SAUDI/KUWAIT/OMAN/DHA/QATAR
#prometricexam #nclexrnexam
#VIRALNURSINGQUESTIONS AND ANSWER /#prometric
A Prometric exam is mainly conducted to validate medical professionals who are eligible
to practice their profession. For example, to qualify to work in various Arabian countries like Dubai, Qatar, Kuwait and Bahrain, nurses from various parts of the world need to pass
the prometric exam for nurses. It is conducted in the form of a computer-based test with multiple-choice questions.
Dubai Health Authority (DHA) conducts examinations for the medical professionals who wish to work in Dubai. Those who qualify the DHA examination will be eligible to work anywhere in the entire UAE.
HAAD is the abbreviation used for the Health Authority of Abu Dhabi. HAAD provides licenses for medical professionals who wish to work in Al-Ain and Abu Dhabi.
Prometric is the agency that carries and facilitates these examinations for various countries. The Prometric alliance is mostly associated with medical licensing examinations in Saudi, Qatar, Kuwait, Oman, and Bahrain.
This video is all about sample Questions with answer for various Nursing Competitive Exam as mentioned below
Saudi Prometric exam questions for Nurses
Qatar Prometric exam questions for Nurses
Oman Prometric exam questions for Nurses
dubai prometric exam questions for Nurses
kuwait prometric exam questions for Nurses
HAAD exam Questions for Nurses
DHA exam Questions for Nurses
MOH exam Questions for Nurses
Nclex-RN Questions with answer
#prometric
#qatarprometricexam
#saudiprometricexam
#omanprometricexamquestions
#nclextips
#nurseblessing
#allaboutprometric
#allaboutnursing
#africannurse
#secretofpassingnursingexam
#nursingquestionandanswer
#nclexquestionandanswer
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Mam i am presently studying 2nd year bsc nursing i am daily watching your videos may be help full in my future.thank you are ❤
Glad to hear that, Thank you !!!
Wish you goodluck
Maam #53. The answer should be A… it’s written there AFTER 15 minutes… so slow infusion rate…
If the reaction happened WITHIN THE 15 MINUTES it should be C- stop the transfusion.
In shock ist priority is trenlenberg position
for which question ??? so i can answer you
thank you
Mam plz share emergency department questions for moh interview and pretest
noted. thank you
Mam 33 ans is c
correct answer is A
A clear liquid diet is necessary to ensure that the bowel is clean and free of solid residues. This helps the physician get a clear view of the colon during the procedure.
The clear liquid diet usually starts 24 hours before the colonoscopy to allow adequate time for the gastrointestinal tract to clear.
Proper bowel preparation is critical for the success of the colonoscopy, as any residual stool can hinder the examination and potentially require repeat procedures.
B; Full liquid diet for 24 hours before the procedure: This is not appropriate, as full liquid diets can leave residue that may obstruct visibility during the colonoscopy.
C; Regular diet up to 12 hours before the procedure: This is incorrect because solid foods can leave residue in the intestines, compromising the quality of the procedure.
D; No special preparation needed: This is incorrect, as bowel preparation is essential for an effective and safe colonoscopy.
THANK YOU !!!!
Rationale pls on q25 and q36, thank you
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a key indicator of how well warfarin is controlling blood clotting. The therapeutic range for INR with warfarin therapy is typically between 2.0 and 3.0, depending on the condition being treated. An INR of 4.5 is significantly above this range, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This elevated INR suggests that the client is at a higher risk for bleeding complications and may require urgent intervention, such as adjusting the warfarin dose or administering reversal agents.
a) INR of 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for patients on warfarin therapy. This low INR suggests that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient, potentially putting the patient at risk for clot formation rather than bleeding.
b) Platelet count of 150,000; A platelet count of 150,000 is at the lower end of the normal range (150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm³). While thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) can be a concern in various contexts, it is not the most immediate concern compared to an elevated INR in the context of warfarin therapy.
d) Hematocrit of 45%; A hematocrit of 45% is within the normal range for adults (approximately 40% to 50%). This result does not indicate an immediate issue related to warfarin therapy.
In summary, an INR of 4.5 is the most concerning laboratory result for a client taking warfarin due to the significantly increased risk of bleeding.
QUESTIONS 36;
For a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving anticoagulation therapy, the lab value that indicates therapeutic anticoagulation is: B) APTT 1.5 to 2 times the control value
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) is monitored for patients on heparin therapy. For therapeutic anticoagulation with heparin, the APTT should be 1.5 to 2 times the control value (baseline). This indicates that the anticoagulant effect of heparin is within the therapeutic range, helping to prevent clot formation effectively without excessive bleeding risk.
A) INR 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is within the normal range for individuals not on anticoagulant therapy. For patients on warfarin therapy, the therapeutic INR range is generally between 2.0 and 3.0 (sometimes slightly higher depending on the condition). Therefore, an INR of 1.0 indicates that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient.
C) Platelet count of 100,000: A platelet count of 100,000 indicates thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). While it is important to monitor platelet count, especially because thrombocytopenia can be a complication of heparin therapy (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia), it does not directly indicate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy.
D) Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL; A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL indicates anemia. This value does not reflect the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy directly. While monitoring hemoglobin is important for assessing potential bleeding or other complications, it does not specifically indicate whether the anticoagulation is therapeutic.
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Madam please share leadership and management questions also.Thanks😊
noted
Q-20,ans-c(airborne precautions)
No you are wrong answer right is contact precautions ✅
Thank you for pointing out the question to me, the correct answer is C Airborne precaution.
Chickenpox (varicella) is transmitted through airborne droplets and aerosolized particles. The virus can remain suspended in the air and be inhaled by others even after the patient has left the area. Airborne precautions are required to prevent the spread of the virus to other patients and healthcare workers. This involves placing the patient in an airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) with negative pressure, and healthcare workers should wear N95 respirators or other appropriate respiratory protection.
a) Droplet precautions; Droplet precautions are used for infections spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or certain bacterial infections. Chickenpox requires airborne precautions rather than droplet precautions because the virus is transmitted through much smaller particles that can remain airborne for longer periods.
b) Contact precautions; Contact precautions are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment, such as with MRSA or Clostridium difficile. While contact precautions might be used in conjunction with airborne precautions to manage skin lesions, they are not sufficient alone for chickenpox.
d) Reverse isolation ; Reverse isolation (or protective isolation) is used to protect immunocompromised patients from infections. It is not applicable for patients with chickenpox, who are themselves contagious.
DX airborne precaution
* chickenpox
* herpez zoster
*measles
*tuberculosis
*smallpox
DX contact precaution
Monkeypox
MRSA
Ebola
scabies
clostridium difficles
gastroenteritis
hepatitis A
herpes simplex
impetigo
rotavirus
diphtheria etc
DX droplet precaution
meningitis, mump, influenza , adenovirus rubella, SARS, rhinovirus pertussis , , streptococcal pharyngitis , viral hemorrhagic fever etc
Thank you!!!
Mam plz explain q38
The appropriate nursing action when caring for a patient with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) B; measure and document the external length of the catheter.
measuring the external length helps identify any changes that may indicate catheter migration or displacement. It’s essential for ensuring the catheter is in the correct position, which is critical for effective therapy and reducing complications
A; flush the line with heparin every 12 hours: This may not be necessary for all PICCs and depends on the facility's protocol. Not all PICCs require heparin flushes.
C; administer all medication through the same lumen: This is not advisable as it can increase the risk of incompatibilities and complications. It is often best practice to use different lumens for incompatible medications.
D; avoid flushing the line to prevent clot dislodgment: Flushing is actually necessary to maintain patency and prevent clot formation, provided it is done carefully.
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Mam 21 ans is a
A incorrect
correct answer is B
Levels below 3.5 mEq/L can indicate hypokalemia (low potassium), which can cause muscle weakness and cardiac issues.
Levels above 5.0 mEq/L can indicate hyperkalemia (high potassium), which can also lead to serious cardiac problems.
Therefore, the range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L is considered normal and safe for healthy adults.
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Tq mam
44/64
great score. keep it up 🤝🤝
Thank you so much
Aap dha preparation kr rhe ho??
You're most welcome
Madam please share NHRA question and answer
ok thank 🤝🤝👌
@@nurseblessing thank you ma'am
Madam is this for specialist or tech? Thank u
BOTH
Thank u mam
you are welcome 🤝🤝
Aap dha preparation kr rhe ho???
Mam,could you please explain question 39?
correct answer is A
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to increased potassium excretion, potentially causing hypokalemia (low potassium levels). To counteract this, patients are often advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas, oranges, and spinach. Monitoring potassium levels and potentially taking potassium supplements as prescribed may also be necessary.
b) Avoid exposure to sunlight; While some medications can increase sensitivity to sunlight, furosemide is not typically associated with significant photosensitivity. Therefore, this is not a primary concern related to furosemide therapy.
c) Increase salt intake; Furosemide helps to reduce fluid buildup by increasing urine output, and it is generally used in conditions where fluid overload is a problem. Increasing salt intake could counteract the benefits of the diuretic and worsen fluid retention. Therefore, patients are usually advised to manage their salt intake according to their healthcare provider's recommendations.
d) Limit fluid intake to 500 ml/hr; This recommendation is more relevant for specific conditions requiring fluid restriction. For most patients on furosemide, fluid intake should be managed according to their overall fluid balance and the guidance of their healthcare provider, rather than a strict limitation like 500 ml/hr. Fluid intake management should be personalized based on the patient's condition and treatment goals.
THANK YOU !!!!!
@NURSEBLESSING .
@@nurseblessing Thank you so much for your brief explanation...This will help me a lot to understand in easy way...once again thank you
@@JasonsSons welcome 🤝🤝
Q 25 ka answer c kaise hai koi explain kar skta hai ❓❓
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a key indicator of how well warfarin is controlling blood clotting. The therapeutic range for INR with warfarin therapy is typically between 2.0 and 3.0, depending on the condition being treated. An INR of 4.5 is significantly above this range, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This elevated INR suggests that the client is at a higher risk for bleeding complications and may require urgent intervention, such as adjusting the warfarin dose or administering reversal agents.
a) INR of 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for patients on warfarin therapy. This low INR suggests that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient, potentially putting the patient at risk for clot formation rather than bleeding.
b) Platelet count of 150,000; A platelet count of 150,000 is at the lower end of the normal range (150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm³). While thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) can be a concern in various contexts, it is not the most immediate concern compared to an elevated INR in the context of warfarin therapy.
d) Hematocrit of 45%; A hematocrit of 45% is within the normal range for adults (approximately 40% to 50%). This result does not indicate an immediate issue related to warfarin therapy.
In summary, an INR of 4.5 is the most concerning laboratory result for a client taking warfarin due to the significantly increased risk of bleeding.
thank you .
45/64
great , keep it up , thank you
54/64
great score , keep it up !!!