ฝัง
- เผยแพร่เมื่อ 26 ธ.ค. 2024
- seedbed.com
Seedbed's mission is to gather, connect, and resource the people of God to sow for a great awakening. // Find out more and join the awakening journey! seedbed.com
The Protestant Reformation launched early in the 16th century, so how might an 18th century church leader named John Wesley fit into this picture? Watch this Seven Minute Seminary by Dr. Larry Wood to find out.
John Wesley was influenced by the English Reformation, since he was, until his death, an Anglican churchman. Anglicanism, as opposed to much of the continental reformations, was more deeply rooted in the Trinitarian theology and spirituality of the early church. This had a profound bearing on Wesley's doctrine and on the vision of the Christian life as he understood it.
Excellent! Clarification of an oft missed trajectory.
Beautiful
Outstanding survey!
Thank you Dr. Wood!
To say that Wesleyanism is not a descendant of the Protestant Reformation is the same as saying that 21st century Americans are not European descendants.... they may be a step or two removed, but it does not negate the overwhelming influence of the background that predated the modern expression. By contrast, the assertion that Wesley derived his theology for Methodism from Early Greek Fathers is somewhat fantasy, especially if using the same rule of separation used to distinguish Wesley from the Reformation; i.e. you can't say the Methodists directly attest to the Greek fathers but not the Reformation when the former predates the latter. Outler asserted this claim concerning the Greek Fathers and since, scholars have been asserting its truth despite no clear evidence to support it. Ted Campbell's book on Wesley and Christian antiquity outlines the specific instances of Wesley's use of the Primitive Church Fathers and shows that Augustine (Western Father) is referenced 25% more than any of the other Eastern Fathers. Further, Maddox speaks to the use of the early church fathers as indicative of the necessary theological balance between Protestant (Reformation) and Catholic traditions [Responsible Grace]. Campbell goes on to outline that Wesley's use of the early fathers was for their exegesis not the basis of their theological tradition... but even still, to assert direct attestation simply goes against the evidence. In addition, this is basically splitting hairs here by ISOLATING the English Reformation as something completely distinct from the rest of the reformations taking place on the continent. Yes, the English reformation had its particulars, but it was not developed in a vacuum. There is ample evidence of theological cross-pollination across the regions of reformation which began with people like Huss, Wycliffe, and Coverdale, et al. In the end, to sever Wesley from the Protestant Reformation, given that he VEHEMENTLY defended the primary tenents of the reformation (as did the Anglicans): Justification by faith alone and sola scriptura {despite modern Wesleyan scholarship that asserts he proposed prima scriptura}.... is not only nonsense, but does not take into account its particular but consistent Anglican application regardless of Outler's assertion of a quadrilateral [contrived as that may be- see also Ted Campbell on the creation of the quadrilateral].
What a bloviating straw man argument. He never said that. The English reformation was tied to the European reformation, but it was very different. Sorry. Wesley was not an Arminian. But you may keep labeling people who disagree with you to discredit them.
Proverbs 26:4 Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him.
Proverbs 26:5 Answer a fool according to his folly, Lest he be wise in his own eyes.
You clearly missed where I challenged isolating the English Reformation from that on the Continent.
In the interest of constructive discussion, please indicate where the strawman argument is.
Now looking at this 3 yrs later & having completed my PhD on Wesley, this summary from Wood is so historically misleading it's even more difficult to listen to. Unfortunately, Wood is caught up in a historical understanding that is outdated. His point here is to draw a stark line between Calvinism and Wesleyanism (though Wesley said he was but a hairs breadth away from Calvin on most things theological), and does so without addressing the abundant new historical work that demonstrates the strong ties between the Continental Reformations and England, which Wesley not only inherited, but defended. And to say that Wesley was not (modified) Arminian is to ignore the facts (see McCall/Stanglin "After Arminius") just as Wood rightly states Methodists are modified Anglicans.
But all things considered you nailed it. Cased closed. Congrats.
And was not Cranmer more or less Calvinistic in his theology?