Sir if the function is not defined at one of the end points then how to tell if the function converges or diverges? Ex. Integration from 0 to pi (sin@)d@/√π-@
if a function is not defined at one of the end points then integral of such functions falls into the category of improper integral of type II. For this specific example, try subtituting t = pi - @ and give a try...see my lecture on improper integral of type II.
Thank you sir for explain this nice way
@@केतन-य9ण welcome 😊
Great explanations!
Thank you..
thank youu so much sir great lecture
Welcome:)
Clear concept
👍😊
Sir if the function is not defined at one of the end points then how to tell if the function converges or diverges?
Ex. Integration from 0 to pi (sin@)d@/√π-@
if a function is not defined at one of the end points then integral of such functions falls into the category of improper integral of type II. For this specific example, try subtituting t = pi - @ and give a try...see my lecture on improper integral of type II.
@@DrMathaholic Ok Sir👍🏻
Thank you
Sir at 13.42 min i1 answer ma -2 ave chee
-(-2) will become 2..
Ek vaar calculations check karine jo
Sir tya tamee -2( - x) lakyu pan tya khale 2(-x ) jj avee!!
Thanku so much sir
Welcome 😊
answers are
1) 4
2) not defined
3) 6
btw i'm doubtful about 2nd question's answer
Thanks Chinmay!!! Lets see what other comments. Else I will solve
I also have doubt in 2nd .
@@anuragpatil6966 what answer u got?
I1= log(-c) - log(1), I2= log4 - log(d) final ans is I1+I2, but what we have to do of log(-c) and log(d) where c tends to 0- and d tends to 0+
For 3rd I am getting ans as 6
4,not defined,6
I didn't get!
@@DrMathaholic sir
1)4
2)not defined...
3)6
....home work answer
@@komalgite7965 aahhh 😀😀 okok 👍😀
Correct!! Thanks for posting the answer 😊