Very insightful and rightly so. Something new learnt here. Drop 2s are surely voicings. Simply because voicings are the ways chord(s) are played or expressed. That is to say, the way a chord is played doesn't make it different to what the chord itself in its root or original position would have been. It only changes the feel and colour of the said chord not the chord quality. "Deciding to eat a banana the by peeling and biting directly or by cutting and eating with fork doesn't change the fact that it's a banana neither is it a new fruit, it's the way it's being ingested that differs. Drop 2 falls under the way the fruit is consumed and doesn't make it a an entirely different fruit (I hope I made sense😅). Thanks for this insightful tut.
@yamajestykingneto Drop 2s are a type of inversion, yes. But, the inversion itself is NOT a chord. If you hold your TV remote upside down, it still remains a TV remote but in a different orientation.
Yeah, the term drop 2 seems off to me also. Like it’s sounding you wanna add the 2 (like D in the key of C) in the chord somehow. It makes way more sense to me by calling it inversions. It’s what I’m used to ever since I started learning. But I suppose people call them Drop 2 chords from learning in a church and not having the traditional music theory background. Great video regardless!
Bangs are not hair. Curls are not hair. Twists are not hair. Drop 2s are not chords. Um…bangs, twists, curls are hairstyles. Drop 2s are chord shapes. Whatever. I’ll see myself out now.
Thank you for the tutorial. This is definitely not the way I have expressed voicings historically as I would just say a first inversion chord missing the 3 in the right hand or what not, but this seems a very intriguing way of looking at things! I find that changing language often influences thought processes so potentially there can be ideas which lend themselves much more naturally to this way of thinking! I had one question which I could see going either way and it really is just about the terminology more than anything else, but nonetheless here goes: How do we actually determine what the "2nd highest note", is? I see 3 methods which make varying degrees of sense to me and I'm curious which one is meant: 1. Based on the ideological concept of the chord played in the right hand in root position - Example: If I have an A octave in the left hand and F-G-C-F in the right this is considered "drop 2" because in the pure ideological concept of an F major add 2 chord the a is the second highest note even though in my particular voicing it is not the second highest note missing 2. Based on the ideological concept of the chord played in the right hand with respect to it's inversion - Example: If I have a G octave in the left hand and C-F-A-C in the right hand this is considered "drop 2" because in the ideological concept of a 3rd inversion F major add 2 chord (C-F-G-A), G is the second highest note therefore when it is in the base this is considered drop 2 even though it isn't the second highest note 3. Based purely on the notes we are playing without regard to the ideological concept of the chord - Example: If I have a C octave in the left hand and F-G-A-F in the right, this is considered "drop 2" because "C" is between "A" and "F" the top 2 notes in my right hand voicing (this implies that I could play any note between A and F in my left hand and it would remain a "drop 2" voicing though the name of the chord would change) Sorry if that was overly technical but that's how my brain works haha. Anyways would appreciate clarification. Thanks!
@BaptistPiano Great question, and I understand your thought trains. Drop 2 comes from brass instrumentation, where the 2nd trumpet would drop down an octave to allow more space for the melody. With this in mind, in conjunction with the continued modernization of the drop 2 voicing, I don't think it matters too much how many tones or voices are in your original chord, nor its original position (root, 1st inv, 2nd inv, etc.) I'm sure the purists will insist that drop 2s are only REAL drop 2s when the melody is on top.
@@diontmusic thank you! So to be clear you are saying that it is effectively definition 1 that I gave and that some purists would only say it was drop 2 if it simultaneously fulfilled definitions 1 and 3?
@@BaptistPiano Kind of. Here's a scenario. If the original voicing calls for F-G-A-C-F, the drop 2 voicing requires your left hand to take the C. It MUST be C because the chord has to remain a Fadd9 or Fadd2.
Personally, if the 9 is voiced below the 3 and there are additional extensions I would call it add2. I suppose one additional case I may call it an add2 would be if there was only a 6 in the chord as well so like the notes F-G-A-C-D I may call F6add2 as opposed to just F13 because it more clearly articulates that I want that clustered pentatonic sound. As soon as we add any kind of 7, 11, or modified 13 I would always begin calling the 2 a 9 I think regardless of it's position. Oh one other thing: If the 9 is modified I would never call is a 2. No F add b2 lol it's gonna be F b9 although would probably specify the 7 as either Fmaj7b9 or F7b9 to be explicit
@pianolessonswithbless879 By definition, chords and voicings are two separate things in music. Chords are groups of notes like major triads and dominant sevenths, for example. A voicing refers specifically to the way those notes from the chord are distributed -- the placement of those notes in relation to each other.
![[MV] A leap of faith...ความเชื่อใจครั้งสุดท้าย (From "Petrichor the series")](http://i.ytimg.com/vi/U1piZH2CNXA/mqdefault.jpg)
Very insightful and rightly so. Something new learnt here.
Drop 2s are surely voicings. Simply because voicings are the ways chord(s) are played or expressed.
That is to say, the way a chord is played doesn't make it different to what the chord itself in its root or original position would have been.
It only changes the feel and colour of the said chord not the chord quality.
"Deciding to eat a banana the by peeling and biting directly or by cutting and eating with fork doesn't change the fact that it's a banana neither is it a new fruit, it's the way it's being ingested that differs.
Drop 2 falls under the way the fruit is consumed and doesn't make it a an entirely different fruit (I hope I made sense😅).
Thanks for this insightful tut.
What a great Lesson! thank you!
Excellent video!
Great tutorial. Clear, concise and very useful.
Thx for the lessons sir. There's an improvement on my side❤
Drop 2s are chords though. A chord is combination of at least two notes. Drop 2s is technically a type of inversion. Great tutorial btw!
@yamajestykingneto Drop 2s are a type of inversion, yes. But, the inversion itself is NOT a chord. If you hold your TV remote upside down, it still remains a TV remote but in a different orientation.
You are a great teacher❤️
Yeah, the term drop 2 seems off to me also. Like it’s sounding you wanna add the 2 (like D in the key of C) in the chord somehow. It makes way more sense to me by calling it inversions. It’s what I’m used to ever since I started learning. But I suppose people call them Drop 2 chords from learning in a church and not having the traditional music theory background.
Great video regardless!
what tradition are you referring to? the church was the root of most of western music theory
You can't get a drop 2 just by inverting a chord. Sure it is just an inversion but one with a particular voicing by dropping 2nd note down an octave.
Bangs are not hair. Curls are not hair. Twists are not hair. Drop 2s are not chords. Um…bangs, twists, curls are hairstyles. Drop 2s are chord shapes. Whatever. I’ll see myself out now.
Thank you for the tutorial. This is definitely not the way I have expressed voicings historically as I would just say a first inversion chord missing the 3 in the right hand or what not, but this seems a very intriguing way of looking at things! I find that changing language often influences thought processes so potentially there can be ideas which lend themselves much more naturally to this way of thinking! I had one question which I could see going either way and it really is just about the terminology more than anything else, but nonetheless here goes:
How do we actually determine what the "2nd highest note", is? I see 3 methods which make varying degrees of sense to me and I'm curious which one is meant:
1. Based on the ideological concept of the chord played in the right hand in root position - Example: If I have an A octave in the left hand and F-G-C-F in the right this is considered "drop 2" because in the pure ideological concept of an F major add 2 chord the a is the second highest note even though in my particular voicing it is not the second highest note missing
2. Based on the ideological concept of the chord played in the right hand with respect to it's inversion - Example: If I have a G octave in the left hand and C-F-A-C in the right hand this is considered "drop 2" because in the ideological concept of a 3rd inversion F major add 2 chord (C-F-G-A), G is the second highest note therefore when it is in the base this is considered drop 2 even though it isn't the second highest note
3. Based purely on the notes we are playing without regard to the ideological concept of the chord - Example: If I have a C octave in the left hand and F-G-A-F in the right, this is considered "drop 2" because "C" is between "A" and "F" the top 2 notes in my right hand voicing (this implies that I could play any note between A and F in my left hand and it would remain a "drop 2" voicing though the name of the chord would change)
Sorry if that was overly technical but that's how my brain works haha. Anyways would appreciate clarification. Thanks!
@BaptistPiano Great question, and I understand your thought trains. Drop 2 comes from brass instrumentation, where the 2nd trumpet would drop down an octave to allow more space for the melody. With this in mind, in conjunction with the continued modernization of the drop 2 voicing, I don't think it matters too much how many tones or voices are in your original chord, nor its original position (root, 1st inv, 2nd inv, etc.) I'm sure the purists will insist that drop 2s are only REAL drop 2s when the melody is on top.
@@diontmusic thank you! So to be clear you are saying that it is effectively definition 1 that I gave and that some purists would only say it was drop 2 if it simultaneously fulfilled definitions 1 and 3?
@@BaptistPiano Kind of. Here's a scenario. If the original voicing calls for F-G-A-C-F, the drop 2 voicing requires your left hand to take the C. It MUST be C because the chord has to remain a Fadd9 or Fadd2.
Does adding the 2 to a triad make it an add9 chord, or is there something like an add2?
@@MrAgent00i some people have differing opinions on this. I think most people call it an add9 no matter what.
Personally, if the 9 is voiced below the 3 and there are additional extensions I would call it add2. I suppose one additional case I may call it an add2 would be if there was only a 6 in the chord as well so like the notes F-G-A-C-D I may call F6add2 as opposed to just F13 because it more clearly articulates that I want that clustered pentatonic sound. As soon as we add any kind of 7, 11, or modified 13 I would always begin calling the 2 a 9 I think regardless of it's position. Oh one other thing: If the 9 is modified I would never call is a 2. No F add b2 lol it's gonna be F b9 although would probably specify the 7 as either Fmaj7b9 or F7b9 to be explicit
@@BaptistPiano I like this 🤌🏾
I think a drop 2 is a chord and at the same time a voicing....
@pianolessonswithbless879 By definition, chords and voicings are two separate things in music. Chords are groups of notes like major triads and dominant sevenths, for example. A voicing refers specifically to the way those notes from the chord are distributed -- the placement of those notes in relation to each other.
I do not get your understanding of this when it comes to 9th chords and your other extensions lol thats where your concept goes out of wack my friend
How so? The drop 2 voicing can work with 9ths and other chord extensions.