To the Saints...as Among the Other Gentiles | A Strange Claim
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- เผยแพร่เมื่อ 9 ก.พ. 2025
- While Jason Breda told us that Romans chapters 1 through 8 is addressed to Jews, Al Garza told me that "saints" only applies to Jews, based on Ephesians 3:5. Here's my thoughts on these matters, and why both are in error.
#hermeneutics #bible #theology
What a really strange interaction. This is personally why I have stopped engaging with stuff online because there are so many illogical positions that exist and it takes more effort to be careful and precise than it takes to simply just say random things that someone thinks supports their position. It's often felt like I would do more research and study to respond than they did to make a silly claim in the first place.
I love this guys response of how even though all the trusted translations disagree with him the problem is that YOU don't know Greek! Understanding that αγιος is an adjective that can sometimes function as a substantival noun is crucial to this conversation. To say that because it's used of the apostles and prophets means it's only about Jews is as silly as saying because it's used of the "Holy" Spirit it only refers to members of the Godhead. The various intros to letters with saints and the lexicon's definition are more than satisfactory to disprove his claim and if his best supporting text is Ephesians 3:5 from the NASBS (Not A Serious Bible Scholar translation) then it shows the silliness of the position. Thanks for taking one for the team brother!
Very thoughtful comment! I appreciate it and agree wholeheartedly.
Sounds like they are willing to go to any length to defend their position. That being that Calvinism is bad. Saints are the vessels of mercy. ,"Even us who He called, both Jew and Gentile." They are getting desperate brother.
I think you're right. I meant to add that if Jason's and Al's claims are correct, a two-tiered Christianity emerges, where it's better to be a Jewish Christian than a Gentile Christian. Scripture rejects this in more than one place, as you pointed out. Indeed, your quote is from Romans 9, and Jason's claim is that Paul is talking to Gentiles from chapter 9 on, and stops using the first person. Except that "us" is first person plural. The reference is to believers together, whether Jew or Gentile, including Paul. Jason's new claim is merely eisegesis.
Reminds me of hyper dispensationalist
I had to look that up. I'm not familiar with hyper dispensationalism.