Question: where you say it is possible to infer the dative for 'Mosi' (God spoke to Moses), if just relying on context alone why is it not possible to have it as an ablative (God spoke by Moses)?
The Greek is dative, so I think it is safe to assume the Latin reflects that by also being dative. Also, I believe the form "Mosi" allows for genitive or dative (ablative would be "Mose."
@@ndtoten5089 Yes, agree with all that! Thanks. (My Q came though because in the video we were assumed to be confined by not comparing to the greek or having knowledge of the latin declension forms of Moses - with these restrictions imposed I don't think I could rule out ablative. Without these restrictions we can rule out ablative.)
Thank you!
Question: where you say it is possible to infer the dative for 'Mosi' (God spoke to Moses), if just relying on context alone why is it not possible to have it as an ablative (God spoke by Moses)?
The Greek is dative, so I think it is safe to assume the Latin reflects that by also being dative.
Also, I believe the form "Mosi" allows for genitive or dative (ablative would be "Mose."
@@ndtoten5089 Yes, agree with all that! Thanks.
(My Q came though because in the video we were assumed to be confined by not comparing to the greek or having knowledge of the latin declension forms of Moses - with these restrictions imposed I don't think I could rule out ablative. Without these restrictions we can rule out ablative.)