How a Mathematician Would Prove These 4 Results

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  • เผยแพร่เมื่อ 24 ต.ค. 2024

ความคิดเห็น • 14

  • @jammasound
    @jammasound 3 วันที่ผ่านมา +1

    Pretty much knew you were going to do contradiction for the other 3, after seeing the 1st one. Nice little intro to analysis for me. I'm still in Calculus but I want to jump into analysis at some point.

    • @dibeos
      @dibeos  2 วันที่ผ่านมา +1

      @@jammasound yeah, even though it is kind of “repetitive”, because the idea is the same for all 4, I believe that it’s a very good exercise to reinforce the argument 4 times in slightly different proofs. Honestly , that’s the way to learn how to prove stuff in math, by practicing over and over again

  • @mairc9228
    @mairc9228 3 วันที่ผ่านมา +1

    by using fairly routine tricks like multiplying my -1 squared you can actually show a and b just from c and d.
    also, using similar methods, along with a special case of c where for all -inf(-A)=sup(A) and similarly for d, you can show that a and c imply d and that b and d imply c, and by what we saw above, only ac, bd, or cd need to be proven in order to make sure all 4 are correct
    i will leave the proofs below:
    suppose c and d and x>0, then
    inf(xA)=inf(-(-x)A). using c, inf(-(-x)A)=-sup(-xA), and then using d: -sup(-xa)=-(-x)inf(A)=xinfa, thus we obtain b
    similarly, sup(xA)=sup(-(-x)A). using d, sup(-(-x)A)=-inf(-xA), and then using c: -inf(-xa)=-(-x)sup(A)=xsup(A), and so a is true
    suppose x

  • @looped89
    @looped89 9 ชั่วโมงที่ผ่านมา +1

    I love what you are doing! Could you do some on homology and cohomology? :0 cheers!

    • @dibeos
      @dibeos  9 ชั่วโมงที่ผ่านมา

      @@looped89yesssss, that’s a great idea actually. There not many high quality videos on these subjects in TH-cam

  • @JGLambourne
    @JGLambourne 3 วันที่ผ่านมา +3

    Can't this be proved without using contradiction? I worry about using proof by contradiction when working with infinite sets.

    • @dibeos
      @dibeos  3 วันที่ผ่านมา

      @@JGLambourne it can definitely be proved without using contradiction. But what is the problem with using it?

    • @jammasound
      @jammasound 3 วันที่ผ่านมา +1

      I think its OK here, because for any two real numbers you have exactly one of the following is true: a < b, a = b, a > b.

    • @JGLambourne
      @JGLambourne 2 วันที่ผ่านมา

      @@jammasound How do you prove that ? The real numbers are equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences of rational numbers.

    • @jammasound
      @jammasound 2 วันที่ผ่านมา

      @@JGLambourne Not sure, perhaps its taken for granted like the existence of parallel lines.

    • @willnewman9783
      @willnewman9783 วันที่ผ่านมา

      ​@@JGLambourneI don't know why you would worry about proof by contradiction with infinite sets.
      Anyway, to show that for all real numbers either a=b, ab, using the Cauchy sequence definition, one needs to define

  • @samueldeandrade8535
    @samueldeandrade8535 3 วันที่ผ่านมา

    Christ, give me patience to write a proof here!

  • @samueldeandrade8535
    @samueldeandrade8535 3 วันที่ผ่านมา

    Hummm. Very ... questionable. I could get mad criticising this video, but I guess I am too old. I will just leave this here:
    I will use "ext" for sup or inf. Then ext A satisfies an inequality
    x * ext A * b (★),
    for all x in A, for all b * bound,
    meaning
    IF ext = sup, then * = ≤ and b is upper bound
    IF ext = inf, then * = ≥ and b is lower bound
    Also, txe A will denote the other guy and ° will denote the other inequality symbol.
    Ok. Take μ≠0 (μ will be my lambda, I can't write lambda) and
    some * bound b for μA
    This means
    μx * b, for all x in A
    Let s=sign of μ, then
    x (s*) b/μ, for all x in A
    So, b/μ is an s* bound for A, with
    s* = *, if s=1 (μ>0),
    s* = ° , if s=-1 (μ0),
    sext = txe , if s=-1 (μ0,
    μ ext A = ext μA
    if μ

  • @samueldeandrade8535
    @samueldeandrade8535 3 วันที่ผ่านมา

    Ok, my proof was correct and I freaked out for nothing.