Thanks dear BROTHER Chad. I appreciate your bringing "in" the extra-biblical sources on some of these questions. It brings clarification and also it serves to show the broad scope of who was forming the thought culture into which Jesus stepped. I wonder, do you know the work of Dr. Michael Heiser? God's peace and thanks as always.
Pastor I had a question, now, I watched your video but I'm curious if someone could blaspheme the Spirit of God in their thoughts or their minds or can it only be done through speaking it and sharing it with others with the intent of leading people away? It's kind of strange, it's like my mind has a mind of it's own. When I try to think good or not think at all, then evil thoughts come. Thoughts that go against what I believe.
There is a certain restlessness in all our minds. I have been in church before, in the very presence of the sacred, and my mind drifted toward evil thoughts. To a certain extent, that it utterly out of our control. I believe it was Martin Luther who said, "We cannot keep the birds of the air from fling over our heads, but we can keep them from building nests in our hair." By that he meant, of course, that like the birds of the air, our thoughts will fly here and there. Our primary goal is to keep them from finding a lodging place within our minds so that they take root and ensnare us with all sorts of evil imaginations and sinful plottings. To answer your specific question, blasphemy is primarily a matter of orally speaking against God by attributing evil to him. And the specific sin agains the Holy Spirit, as it is described in the Gospels, is ongoing, hardhearted, oral defamation of God by speaking of him as if he is Satan.
@@chadbird1517 I've had a few evil daydreams. Daydreams that maybe out of my control at times. I know I love the Father the Son and the Holy Spirit. I have Faith that God can forgive sin. I just hope I didn't sin. The thoughts seem to come back, sometimes out of compulsion or out of my control. Now is a thought a sin if we just believe or agree in the thought? If we dont believe or agree with the thought and we bring it up to God would it still be a sin? Sorry for all the questions, but it's just abit hard to understand pastor.
@@matchit0419 We sin in word and deed, to be sure, but also in thought. If you sinned in thought, or are worried you did, then confess that to God. He freely forgives you in Christ. Are all evil thoughts sinful? No, because sometimes things just pop into our heads, or are suggested by someone else, that we hear and think about then reject.
Lots of interesting points. But the case for the idea that Jesus was referencing Isaiah 49:24-25 specifically is extremely weak, IMO. Why this passage in particular? Shouldn't there be a quote or at least a tighter paraphrase of that passage in the Mark passage before using that Isaiah passage as an exegetical key? Jesus' ministry was extended through His followers after He sent the Spirit, also. Christ's warning against speaking against the Holy Spirit was spoken of 'whoever' did it, not only those who had directly seen His Messianic miracles. I understand the motivation for expositors to try to make this passage 'less scary' and try to make it fit better into their systematic soteriology. But it does say what it says.
Thanks for the comment and observation. Finding and proving intertextual connections between the OT and NT is usually a matter of debate. Some are obvious, such as when an Evangelist tells us that Isaiah said such-and-such, then gives the quotation. Most, however, are not nearly so obvious and undebatable. Often either Jesus or a NT author will include a word, phrase, image, or idiom that they have lifted from an OT verse without informing us that that they're doing so. For instance, almost every scholar agrees that Jesus is alluding to Micah 7:6 in Matthew 10:35-36, but you'd never know it just from reading through Matthew 10. Jesus does not add, "As Micah wrote" or something like that. He just weaves the prophet's words into his own, never missing a beat. But a side-by-side comparison of the Greek translation of Micah 7 with Jesus' words in Matthew 10 makes it convincingly obvious that he is alluding to that prophet's sermon. So also with Isaiah 49. Both the commentary by R. T. France and especially the Commentary on the New Testament Use of the Old Testament make (to me) a convincing argument, based on a lexical analysis of the two passages in Greek, that Isaiah is in the background of Jesus' words. And when we go to the Isaiah background and review the surrounding thematic context, it makes even more sense. I would argue--and not just me but experts in intertextuality--that this happens all over the NT. The quotations, allusions, and echoes of the OT in the NT are an invitation to look at the broader OT context from which the quote comes and, on that basis, let the two texts dialogue with one another. Sorry for the long reply but hopefully it is helpful. Peace to you!
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Thanks again for the video and for your reply the question about Isaiah 49 and it’s connection to the binding of the strong man.
Bad Chad!!! You knocked it out of the park sir! Thorough, and clear. That beard game is next level as well! Thx for the insight and encouragement!
Thank you. Always a treat for my soul to watch your videos. God's peace be with you.
We were talking about this in our Bible study this morning. Looking forward to this.
Thanks dear BROTHER Chad. I appreciate your bringing "in" the extra-biblical sources on some of these questions. It brings clarification and also it serves to show the broad scope of who was forming the thought culture into which Jesus stepped. I wonder, do you know the work of Dr. Michael Heiser? God's peace and thanks as always.
Thank you, Craig! I'm grateful that it proved helpful. Yes, I am aware of Dr. Heiser.
Pastor I had a question, now, I watched your video but I'm curious if someone could blaspheme the Spirit of God in their thoughts or their minds or can it only be done through speaking it and sharing it with others with the intent of leading people away? It's kind of strange, it's like my mind has a mind of it's own. When I try to think good or not think at all, then evil thoughts come. Thoughts that go against what I believe.
There is a certain restlessness in all our minds. I have been in church before, in the very presence of the sacred, and my mind drifted toward evil thoughts. To a certain extent, that it utterly out of our control. I believe it was Martin Luther who said, "We cannot keep the birds of the air from fling over our heads, but we can keep them from building nests in our hair." By that he meant, of course, that like the birds of the air, our thoughts will fly here and there. Our primary goal is to keep them from finding a lodging place within our minds so that they take root and ensnare us with all sorts of evil imaginations and sinful plottings.
To answer your specific question, blasphemy is primarily a matter of orally speaking against God by attributing evil to him. And the specific sin agains the Holy Spirit, as it is described in the Gospels, is ongoing, hardhearted, oral defamation of God by speaking of him as if he is Satan.
@@chadbird1517 I've had a few evil daydreams. Daydreams that maybe out of my control at times. I know I love the Father the Son and the Holy Spirit. I have Faith that God can forgive sin.
I just hope I didn't sin. The thoughts seem to come back, sometimes out of compulsion or out of my control. Now is a thought a sin if we just believe or agree in the thought? If we dont believe or agree with the thought and we bring it up to God would it still be a sin? Sorry for all the questions, but it's just abit hard to understand pastor.
@@matchit0419 We sin in word and deed, to be sure, but also in thought. If you sinned in thought, or are worried you did, then confess that to God. He freely forgives you in Christ. Are all evil thoughts sinful? No, because sometimes things just pop into our heads, or are suggested by someone else, that we hear and think about then reject.
@@chadbird1517 In your opinion can the unpardonable sin be committed in thought or must it be spoken to others and believing it?
Lots of interesting points. But the case for the idea that Jesus was referencing Isaiah 49:24-25 specifically is extremely weak, IMO. Why this passage in particular? Shouldn't there be a quote or at least a tighter paraphrase of that passage in the Mark passage before using that Isaiah passage as an exegetical key?
Jesus' ministry was extended through His followers after He sent the Spirit, also. Christ's warning against speaking against the Holy Spirit was spoken of 'whoever' did it, not only those who had directly seen His Messianic miracles. I understand the motivation for expositors to try to make this passage 'less scary' and try to make it fit better into their systematic soteriology. But it does say what it says.
Thanks for the comment and observation. Finding and proving intertextual connections between the OT and NT is usually a matter of debate. Some are obvious, such as when an Evangelist tells us that Isaiah said such-and-such, then gives the quotation. Most, however, are not nearly so obvious and undebatable. Often either Jesus or a NT author will include a word, phrase, image, or idiom that they have lifted from an OT verse without informing us that that they're doing so. For instance, almost every scholar agrees that Jesus is alluding to Micah 7:6 in Matthew 10:35-36, but you'd never know it just from reading through Matthew 10. Jesus does not add, "As Micah wrote" or something like that. He just weaves the prophet's words into his own, never missing a beat. But a side-by-side comparison of the Greek translation of Micah 7 with Jesus' words in Matthew 10 makes it convincingly obvious that he is alluding to that prophet's sermon. So also with Isaiah 49. Both the commentary by R. T. France and especially the Commentary on the New Testament Use of the Old Testament make (to me) a convincing argument, based on a lexical analysis of the two passages in Greek, that Isaiah is in the background of Jesus' words. And when we go to the Isaiah background and review the surrounding thematic context, it makes even more sense. I would argue--and not just me but experts in intertextuality--that this happens all over the NT. The quotations, allusions, and echoes of the OT in the NT are an invitation to look at the broader OT context from which the quote comes and, on that basis, let the two texts dialogue with one another.
Sorry for the long reply but hopefully it is helpful. Peace to you!