Thank you Dr. Rege, you've given me a lot better confidence in understanding and appraising Systematic Reviews and Meta Analysis!! Here's to research!!!
the menta-analysis I am looking at has a "statistics for each study'' table showing p value at 0, so does that mean there is little chance of heterogeneity ?
P value is derived from alpha ( it’s a Margin of Error in study for a false positive) - as no study is 100 % accurate. If the Test is for heterogeneity and the p value is
Heterogeneity is calculated for the overall pooled group. It is asking the question - are we comparing apples vs apples or are there some pears ( heterogeneity) in this fruit basket
@@PsychiatrySimplified Your explanation is great thank you. I did question it, but currently nothing makes sense and I have just confused myself further :') The article I have states that there is a heterogeneity in the group comparisons but I can not see this on the tables. which is why I think I can not get my head around it. Thank you for taking time out to get back to me :)
Clinical significance is derived from a clinical judgement of effect size. So based on the outcome - for SMD a clinician will evaluate if the ’difference’ is clinically relevant. So say if a depression study showed a SMD of 4 points on HDRS then a clinician will make a judgement as to whether the 4 points difference is clinically relevant or significant for the patient group in study and if it applies to the patient group the clinician sees. Statistical significance is different - we covered it in another video th-cam.com/video/0gMIL-s5kSU/w-d-xo.html A detailed article on statistical significance (p values and confidence intervals can be read here psychscenehub.com/psychinsights/guide-p-values-confidence-intervals/
Thank you Dr. Rege, you've given me a lot better confidence in understanding and appraising Systematic Reviews and Meta Analysis!! Here's to research!!!
Thank you for your feedback 🙏🏻
Thank you very much for this video, it is great! Useful for both trainees and senior clinicians to keep knowledge up to date!
viersternemotel thanks for the feedback
the menta-analysis I am looking at has a "statistics for each study'' table showing p value at 0, so does that mean there is little chance of heterogeneity ?
P value is derived from alpha ( it’s a Margin of Error in study for a false positive) - as no study is 100 % accurate. If the Test is for heterogeneity and the p value is
Heterogeneity is calculated for the overall pooled group. It is asking the question - are we comparing apples vs apples or are there some pears ( heterogeneity) in this fruit basket
@@PsychiatrySimplified Your explanation is great thank you.
I did question it, but currently nothing makes sense and I have just confused myself further :')
The article I have states that there is a heterogeneity in the group comparisons but I can not see this on the tables. which is why I think I can not get my head around it.
Thank you for taking time out to get back to me :)
Hi, for this example how would we work out if the meta analysis is clinically significant? Is 0.5 always the MCID for SMD? Thank you!!!
Clinical significance is derived from a clinical judgement of effect size. So based on the outcome - for SMD a clinician will evaluate if the ’difference’ is clinically relevant. So say if a depression study showed a SMD of 4 points on HDRS then a clinician will make a judgement as to whether the 4 points difference is clinically relevant or significant for the patient group in study and if it applies to the patient group the clinician sees. Statistical significance is different - we covered it in another video th-cam.com/video/0gMIL-s5kSU/w-d-xo.html
A detailed article on statistical significance (p values and confidence intervals can be read here psychscenehub.com/psychinsights/guide-p-values-confidence-intervals/
Very useful ❤
Glad to hear that
This was really useful, thanks
James Cairns thanks for the feedback. We appreciate it
Thanku sir...Video gave me some idea
Thanku sir..well explained.
monika thakur thank you 🙏