Understanding this assume your PM value is 2 and CM value is 4. So when we divide CM / PM [4 / 2] = 2 Here 2 is times, mean CM is 2 times of PM. And PM is 1 times of PM. Because we divide by PM. That's why we minus 1 to calculate only variance part 2-1 = 1 1 times or 100% Hope this helps Thanks 👍
Sir,
Is MS Access still in use ??? And do you still use it ?
Yes and yes
While calculating growth why you have done -1 at last ?
Understanding this assume your PM value is 2 and CM value is 4.
So when we divide CM / PM [4 / 2] = 2
Here 2 is times, mean CM is 2 times of PM. And PM is 1 times of PM. Because we divide by PM.
That's why we minus 1 to calculate only variance part 2-1 = 1
1 times or 100%
Hope this helps
Thanks 👍