In my accent from the Midlands (UK) we use glottal stops in place of T in a lot of cases. In Mental it would happen for the T and in Mentality it would happen for the last T only. In Scientist the first T would be a glottal stop, however in Scientific the T would be pronounced as a normal alveolar oral stop. Pretty weird. I need to figure out a rule for this. Something to do with syllable stress I think as it doesn't seem to happen to Ts that are the onset of stressed syllables.
First, thank you for these amazing videos. I would like to ask you a question. My professor tells us to represent a single sound by its distinctive features, if not done that way, they formal rule is deemed incorrect. What do you think about this?
two criteria for choosing between two rules : simplicity and economy. The theory presumes that the linguists task is similar to the rule construction process in lge acquistion which is thought to be simple and economic.
Concerning final obstruent devoicing: I don't think that it's a matter of dovoicing because the voiceless stops t and k become voiced when they're added to a plural affix morpheme . So, the formal rule would be different. It'd be like : [_sonorant /- voiced] becomes [+voiced/-sonorant] / ------#. Am I wrong?
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In my accent from the Midlands (UK) we use glottal stops in place of T in a lot of cases. In Mental it would happen for the T and in Mentality it would happen for the last T only.
In Scientist the first T would be a glottal stop, however in Scientific the T would be pronounced as a normal alveolar oral stop. Pretty weird. I need to figure out a rule for this. Something to do with syllable stress I think as it doesn't seem to happen to Ts that are the onset of stressed syllables.
Something like: t > ʔ / {V/[n]}_{[-stress]/C/#}
So; intervocalic, post-n, pre-consonantal, and word final
I also have this in my accent (yorkshire)
First, thank you for these amazing videos. I would like to ask you a question. My professor tells us to represent a single sound by its distinctive features, if not done that way, they formal rule is deemed incorrect. What do you think about this?
You explain extraordinarily well, thank you so much.
I had a doubt, if two phonological rules could be applied to explain a set of data, which rule would be preferred by the phonological theory?
two criteria for choosing between two rules : simplicity and economy. The theory presumes that the linguists task is similar to the rule construction process in lge acquistion which is thought to be simple and economic.
Concerning final obstruent devoicing: I don't think that it's a matter of dovoicing because the voiceless stops t and k become voiced when they're added to a plural affix morpheme . So, the formal rule would be different. It'd be like : [_sonorant /- voiced] becomes [+voiced/-sonorant] / ------#. Am I wrong?
Great job.
good luck ,a excellent teacher .
Any ideas about _why_ does the /t/ deletion occur before an unstressed vowel?
actually it occurs before dypthongs..
translation please
Translation in which language ?
from this hebrew course to english
Please is this rules are the same with Speculating about English speech?
I need help please to understand these rules. I am confused
what does " Speculating about English speech" mean?
I luhv you