Thank you so much sir for these explaination MCQs.. i have failed in both the parts last window, I hope your videos will help me to clear my both the exams.
Thankyou so much sir, you have no idea how much of a help are these videos to the students who didn't get proper guidance. The way you explain is very easy to understand and is yet very crisp and breif. Thankyou so much for making these videos free of charge. If i would not have already bought from a educational institution. I would've for sure taken up FTC Global's course. Thanks for making them free and to help alot of people
2:35:38 in q58 , low cost of borrowing does indicate the need to offer discount to debtors as we can borrow the money from bank and invest in the market
Question number 50. I think the answer is A because by entering lock-box agreement firm's actual gains is 1.5 million. so interest is calculated on 1.5 million, not against 3 million, answer should be (1500,00)
Because interest rate is already yearly. You can use monthly rate by dividing 10%/12, then multiply again by 12 to find yearly, they cancel each other In saving 1 % is monthly
@@arthemis_creations They normally pay with in net due date, which is 45 days, so when they borrow 49500 to pay the first 2 payments, they could easily pay the following payments with in 15 days to avail 1 % discount. There is no need to borrow more than 49500 (so that's for year)
Even i got confused with it, but 2.1l is the benefit for the whole yr n not for1 r 2 days as that amt will b invstd for full tym at avg rate 7% ....Hope mythought on it is crct also feel free to counter
In question 46, why did you calculate only one month's interest and not one year's requirement? but we have taken discount saved for year basis ! Please explain.
This is very helpful I really appreciate the way you explain each and every mcqs thank you so much for the efforts and also are there any videos of you explaining the topics of each section if yes where can I find those ?
Assalam Alaykum warehmatullah Hi Sir, you vedios lectures are acting as a source of blessing for me to clear the concept, your ways of explaining the things & solving the question makes every question seems quite easy. I pray that you become popular globally. thanks a ton for the lectures & explanation I have some issues in understanding in 2 MCQ question, in Question no : 48 , 2:08:46 ; you explanined that we should compare Incremental Cost with Incremental revenue , so incremental cost : 12 - 1.50 = 10.50 but why we not take the incremental revenue rather than taking the full interest for 2 days, With $12 Cost we are getting benefit of 1 day early, so while calculating the interest we took it for 2 days interest & compared with incremental cost. 2nd query : in question no : 55, 2:29:19 ; the total overdue amount comes to 400,000/- in the year, but why we took it for 45 days. that 400,000/- is actually the value of sales outstanding for 45 days . i am not able to understand why we took the balance for 45 days. If you can explain these two will be of great benefit for me . Thanks alot Sir
Sir for finding bond interest we multiply by coupon rate or yield to maturity?... Some qstions it is taken coupon rate while some other yeild to maturity...what is the differnce ?
Sir this is really helpful and provides clarity of concepts. Is CMA support package 2021 out? If yes, will you please make same videos for that package as well?
@@FTCGlobal thus called "Call premium" I will give extra money to the bondholder against not redeeming the stock, calling or repurchase it again from the market, so why not D?
from deep of my heart i want to say you're a blessing for us sir ♥, top notch educational content. god bless you
Thank you so much sir for these explaination MCQs.. i have failed in both the parts last window, I hope your videos will help me to clear my both the exams.
I just passed part 1 going for 2 and these have helped so much
@@cassielange2943are you passed
Thankyou so much sir, you have no idea how much of a help are these videos to the students who didn't get proper guidance.
The way you explain is very easy to understand and is yet very crisp and breif.
Thankyou so much for making these videos free of charge.
If i would not have already bought from a educational institution.
I would've for sure taken up FTC Global's course.
Thanks for making them free and to help alot of people
ماشاء الله .. جزاك الله خيرا
Very useful..informative .. thank you
Hello sir, I hope you are doing well. How to get a list of formula which are used for CMA Part 2?
2:35:38 in q58 , low cost of borrowing does indicate the need to offer discount to debtors as we can borrow the money from bank and invest in the market
Question number 50. I think the answer is A because by entering lock-box agreement firm's actual gains is 1.5 million. so interest is calculated on 1.5 million, not against 3 million, answer should be (1500,00)
1.5 million has come by multiplying one day check 2500 with average value per check $600. But we save two days. So just multiply with 2
2:01:50 Question no. 46, why didn't we multiply 49500 by 12, because 49500 is monthly and the what we are comparing it to is annually
Because interest rate is already yearly. You can use monthly rate by dividing 10%/12, then multiply again by 12 to find yearly, they cancel each other
In saving 1 % is monthly
In question 46, why did you calculate only one month's cash requirement and not one year's requirement?
I too have this doubt 😕
@@arthemis_creationsusing 10% yearly rate already gives yearly result, if you go from monthly you need to divide and then multiply again. So no need.
@@arthemis_creations They normally pay with in net due date, which is 45 days, so when they borrow 49500 to pay the first 2 payments, they could easily pay the following payments with in 15 days to avail 1 % discount. There is no need to borrow more than 49500 (so that's for year)
2:13:07 in q50 , sir, why did you assume the 210000 benefit as annual as instead it seems to daily?
Even i got confused with it, but 2.1l is the benefit for the whole yr n not for1 r 2 days as that amt will b invstd for full tym at avg rate 7% ....Hope mythought on it is crct also feel free to counter
We have to take Yield to Maturity rate for Preferred Stock also when calculating COC?
Studying is a much fun adventure
In question 46, why did you calculate only one month's interest and not one year's requirement?
but we have taken discount saved for year basis ! Please explain.
Rate is already yearly rate, so result is for a year.
Sir this video will help for this 2022 October window..... I'm writing exam on 26 Oct..... Please give reply
Yes, it will
This is very helpful I really appreciate the way you explain each and every mcqs thank you so much for the efforts and also are there any videos of you explaining the topics of each section if yes where can I find those ?
Thank you Aesha for your kind appreciation. Yes, videos on different topics are also available on our channel
Did you pass the exam
@@anjanag185 I am gonna appear for part 2 in May
@@aeshadave1599 Part 1 completed
@@anjanag185 no I have started with part 2 and then will go for part 1
Sir please make a video of cma part 2 2022 or 2021 exam package.
Support package is still the same 2019 2020 2021 are all same. And 2022 isn't yet made available
Assalam Alaykum warehmatullah
Hi Sir, you vedios lectures are acting as a source of blessing for me to clear the concept, your ways of explaining the things & solving the question makes every question seems quite easy. I pray that you become popular globally. thanks a ton for the lectures & explanation
I have some issues in understanding in 2 MCQ question, in Question no : 48 , 2:08:46 ; you explanined that we should compare Incremental Cost with Incremental revenue , so incremental cost : 12 - 1.50 = 10.50 but why we not take the incremental revenue rather than taking the full interest for 2 days, With $12 Cost we are getting benefit of 1 day early, so while calculating the interest we took it for 2 days interest & compared with incremental cost.
2nd query : in question no : 55, 2:29:19 ; the total overdue amount comes to 400,000/- in the year, but why we took it for 45 days. that 400,000/- is actually the value of sales outstanding for 45 days . i am not able to understand why we took the balance for 45 days.
If you can explain these two will be of great benefit for me . Thanks alot Sir
Jazak Allah dear Yasir. Thank you so much for your kind appreciation. May Allah bless you with success in every endeavor of life. Ameen
THANK YOU SIR .can you please upload videos for corporate finance lectures .
Hi Sir
Appriciate your kind effort
Please, what is the source of this questions? Gleim, Hock, or Retired?
Thanks a lot Sir
IMA's CMA Exam Support Package
@@FTCGlobal if I watch your video and solve each question is it enough for the preparation???
@@KA-tl5vj No. What you see on youtube is just the tip of the iceberg
@@FTCGlobal Thank you for your reply
Sir for finding bond interest we multiply by coupon rate or yield to maturity?...
Some qstions it is taken coupon rate while some other yeild to maturity...what is the differnce ?
Bro always use stated rate or coupon rate!
Never use ytm i repeat never use ytm
thanks sir
Sir this is really helpful and provides clarity of concepts. Is CMA support package 2021 out? If yes, will you please make same videos for that package as well?
Thank you for your kind appreciation. No IMA did not issue a new support package
@@FTCGlobal do they issue a new package every year sir?
No
thank you so much sir 🙏
Much appreciated!!!!!
Thankyou Sir
Question No. 10: you explained options A,B & C but you not given any explanation why the answer not D!
It's like rishwa. Its like requesting bondholders to take some money and asking them not to redeem their bonds.
Rishwa is haram.
@@FTCGlobal thus called "Call premium" I will give extra money to the bondholder against not redeeming the stock, calling or repurchase it again from the market, so why not D?
@@moustafaaly9271 bhai call premium ka matlab Jaan lo pehle aap
1.36.16
Assalamualaikum
Wailakum Salam dear
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