I solved it using the same symmetrization trick too. I remembered that the same thing is used for example when calculating the definite integral (from 0 to pi/2) of sqrt(tan(x)). There, you can add sqrt(cot(x)), as it is symmetric along x=pi/4, and it makes the rest much easier than if you were to try and compute the indefinite integral.
cool trick but relying on "a well known result" sounds kinda odd to me. Even more when this result is so technical to prove rigoursouly. Great trick nonetheless
@loickbf1225 ah yeah, there are lots of videos explaining this result (including one of my first ever uploads!) so I thought it wouldn't be worth deriving in this video.
I solved it using the same symmetrization trick too. I remembered that the same thing is used for example when calculating the definite integral (from 0 to pi/2) of sqrt(tan(x)). There, you can add sqrt(cot(x)), as it is symmetric along x=pi/4, and it makes the rest much easier than if you were to try and compute the indefinite integral.
@@kriegsmesser4567 yep it's a cool trick right? I've seen a fair few integrals like this!
Have my interviews in 2 days, your videos are very helpful! Thank you!
Good luck!
@Samuel-zs9gw ah just seen this, sorry! How were the interviews??
4:21 likes, u wellcome
Cool
Thanks
cool trick but relying on "a well known result" sounds kinda odd to me. Even more when this result is so technical to prove rigoursouly. Great trick nonetheless
@loickbf1225 ah yeah, there are lots of videos explaining this result (including one of my first ever uploads!) so I thought it wouldn't be worth deriving in this video.