What About John 1?
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- เผยแพร่เมื่อ 26 ก.ย. 2024
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Great video, brother Gary. Your teachings always fill my cup more. YAH bless.
Beautiful, simple, and concise teaching for our day! I'm so glad you brought out the "it" in the Tyndale Bible!
Yah will surely make plain who He truly is without any mistaken identities
... BTW, there are literally hundreds(and probably 1000's) of Bible references that prove that Yah is One, Yeshua is the Mashiach of Yah, and that there is no such thing as a "tri-une" Elohim!
Those who love the Truth will be set free by it. Those who love the religion of Man will be entrapped by it!
Elohiym is plural.
If you are saying the word "Elohim" is referring to multiple deities, then why do the translators of your English Bible never translate it as plural when referring to the Creator? They ALWAYS translate "Elohim" as singular when referring to the Creator. The only time "elohim" is translated plural is when it is in reference to multiple false deities. Question for you: Was there more than one Mosheh (Exodus 4:16, 7:1)?
What about John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14
58 Yeshua said to them, “Truly, truly, I tell you, before Abraham came into existence, I AM.
14 And Elohim said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
Let me answer your question with a question. Are there any capitalizations in Greek? No! So, I AM is your particular Bible translation editorializing (writing in their own personal religious bias into the text). Are you aware that Yeshua answered "I am he," meaning I am the Messiah, three times in John chapter eight (vs 24, vs 28, and vs 58)? He used the same phrase all three times (ego eimi - I am he, the one you are speaking of). If He used the same phrase all three times, then why doesn't your translation use "I AM" each time? Because it doesn't fit their religious bias in each case. If Yeshua is claiming to be the I AM (the Father), then how does verse 28 make sense? It doesn't! But if ego eimi (I am he) is used, meaning I am the Messiah, it works in every instance (vs 25, vs 28, vs58). "Before Abraham came to be, I am he" (the Messiah, in the plan of YAH). He claimed to be the Messiah three times in John eight. Look at the mission statement of the author of the Good News account of Yohanan (John 20:30-31). The book of John was written that the reader might believe that Yeshua is the Messiah, the Son of Elohim NOT that Yeshua is YAH Elohim.
Amen this makes a whole lot of sense than any other video I’ve watched about John 1:1. When you realize that words are capitalized by bias, it causes theological and spiritual warfare within the community and the Bible itself. When you said that the word of God in John 1:1. The Word logos, is the motivation, plan, reason, and logic of Yah, that made so much sense to me. I’ve thought about this interpretation of John 1:1 and I’ve always thought it meant Yeshua was a mighty one with his Father. But when you mentioned the prophets, and they all agree that Yah alone made heaven and earth, then we cannot say that Yeshua was a second Elohim to his Father. Thank your this great interpretation this might make me change my own interpretation of John 1:1
Excellent teaching brother, thank you!
Great video, thank you so much. So many worship Maschiach as Elohym, especially christians. Many cannot explain the relationship of Yah with Maschiach, it is a complex spiritual thing! Shalom shalom
Do you have a playlist for this series?
GREAT idea! I recently asked my team to put all our teachings on this subject into a playlist. Thank you!
I've changed my stance on this multiple times over the years, so I appreciate you sharing this perspective. Well shared with numerable Scriptural support. Shalom, brother.
I’m filled with Joy today as I watch this…. It makes perfect sense!
Not only the Tyndale Bible but also the Geneva babies says ‘It’ not Him…
Thank you Mr. Simons for bringing obedient.
You are making a difference.
Please make your way to Michigan next year….
Excellent! May this word spread like a wildfire!
Well presented dear brother in Faith! Shalom from Australia
Excellent points brother!
Amen - Thank you. Have been alone in my beliefs for a long time but more and more are seeing the truth.
Absolutely amazing teaching. How do you reconcile what Shaul states in Colossians 1:15-22?
Thank you for asking! This is so simple a child could understand it. The Truth is NOT hard. Let's just look at the text. What does it actually say?
Colossians 1:16 Because in Him (in Messiah Yeshua) were created all that are in the heavens and that are on earth (It does NOT say Yeshua created the heavens and the earth! It says these things that were created were IN the heavens and ON the earth.), visible and invisible (There is NOTHING there saying this has anything to do with the Genesis 1 creation account!)
(In case you were wondering what Sha'ul was talking about, he gives you a list.) ...whether thrones or rulerships or principalities or authorities... (All of these things have to do with governance. It doesn't say one thing about mountains and seas, rivers and streams, trees and fields, animals and people. It specifically speaks of governing bodies. It's like when a new president comes into office. What happens to the old cabinet members? They are replaced by those the new president chooses to help him govern the country.)
- all have been created through Him and for Him (Yeshua establishes these authorities to assist Him in ruling the world for a thousand years of shalom.
Thanks for your comment!
You contradicted yourself sir. You said that the word is logos and then the logos became flesh and dwelt among us. Word = Logos = Yeshua
Revelation 19:13
He is clothed in a robe dipped inb blood, and the name by which he is called is The Word of God.
There is NO contradiction in what I have said. I said that the logos is the creative, articulation in words of the plan of Elohim. YAH's spoken word was with Him at the beginning and all things were created by YAH using His creative spoken word. This agrees completely with the Genesis 1 account and lines up perfectly with what Yeshua taught about creation and the Creator.
In due season, the plan of YAH was fleshed-out in the birth of the Messiah, the Son of Elohim. Mosheh and the prophets all spoke of this. Yeshua was what the word became. Yeshua is called the word of Elohim because He was the prophet like Mosheh (Deuteronomy 18:18-19).
18 I shall raise up for them a Prophet like you out of the midst of their brothers. And I shall put My Words in His mouth, and He shall speak to them all that I command Him.
19 And it shall be, the man who does not listen to My Words which He speaks in My Name, I require it of him.
This is so clear a child could understand it! No mental gymnastics or Greek philosophy. Thanks for your comment!
I really like this message because it makes it clear that Yah is the only eternally existing being. I've shared this sermon with others.
This pastor is making up his own religion at this point because just like his interpreter "Tindale" he doesn't really understand Hebrew and try to think that its English or greek instead of really understanding the words in Hebrew mindset and context to where those words are used. Echad does not mean singular alone in English or Elohim does not mean plural for a royalty and most of all The Word of Elohim that became flesh is not "It". Yeshua Messiah is The Holy and living Word of Elohim who was and who is and who is tocome He is The beginning snd the End the first and the last. Smen HalleluYah!
Friend, please allow me to humbly offer the correct spelling of William Tyndale. You have criticized me for using his translation as an example of one of the earliest English translators who didn't translate John1:1-3 as you do - and he was a trinitarian as well.
John 1:1-3 In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. 2The same was in the beginnynge with God. 3All thinges were made by it and with out it was made nothinge that was made.
Now allow me to offer other early English translations that agree with me. See John 1:2-3 in pre-KJV English bibles:
Matthew(i) 2 The same was in the begynnynge wyth God. 3 All thynges were made by it and without it was made nothynge that was made.
Great(i) 2 The same was in the begynnyng wyth God. 3 All thinges were made by it, & wythout it, was made nothynge that was made.
Geneva(i) 2 This same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made.
Bishops(i) 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God 3 All thynges were made by it: and without it, was made nothyng that was made.
The earliest of the English translations did NOT consider the "word" as a he, but an it. In the beginning was the logos (spoken word, plan articulated) ...All things were made or created by it ("Let there be...") and without it was made nothing that was made. It makes total sense and matches perfectly the Genesis 1 creation account. In the beginning (Genesis 1...In the beginning (John 1) the same! They agree!
Dear ones, DON'T make liars out of Yeshua, Mosheh, or the prophets. It all must agree! It's so simple a child could understand it.
@TriumphInTruthMedia @TriumphInTruthMedia
You really love to manipulate the Holy words of God according to your confusion and to cherry pick what ever verses to agree to your confused explanation. I you would have read further into the same chapter of John ( John chapter 1:10.)then you would realized that Yeshua is The Holy Word of God that became flesh. Instead you start at chapter 20 and further confuse others with your insult of God's Word. And you can't even address the issue that Elohim is a plural noun when ever it's used in the context of the verse. And you can't even address the Hebrew word "Echad". Can you now say that there is only evening in a Whole day or there is only a morning in a whole day (Genesis 1:5) or can you now say that Adam and Eve are two flesh when Elohim made them "echad" (Genesis 2:24) or can the heavenly beings create human beings when YeHoVah Elohim said "Let Us make Man in our image, after our likeness"?
And who's back did Moshe saw when Elohim on the cleft?? (Exodus 33:23) Or did Abraham washed an angels feet in Genesis 18:4? Or who did Jacob wrestled and saw that he did not die in Genesis 32:22-32?? And why did Yeshua call himself the Aleph and Tav the beginning and end in the revaluation as he did in Isaiah chapter 44??
Need I go on???
So please friend,stop your cherry pickin nonsense of the Holy Scriptures just to confuse others. Learn more about this subject and don't preach it if you don't understand it.
Shalom
Dear friend, if only the enlightened ones, understand that "Elohim" when in reference to the Creator is plural and implies multiple deities, then why don't English Bible translators translate "Elohim," when referencing the Creator, as G-o-d-(S)? Not once, when referring to the Creator, do any Bible translators translate "Elohim" in the plural. They also must not be enlightened. The only time "Elohim" is translated in the plural (g-o-d-s) is when it's referring to multiple false deities.
Even when "elohim" is used to refer to Mosheh, it is not translated in the plural (g-o-d-s).
Exodus 4:16 And he shall speak for you to the people. And it shall be that he shall be a mouth for you, and you shall be an elohim (g-o-d) for him.
Exodus 7:1 So יהוה said to Mosheh, “See, I have made you an elohim (g-o-d) to Pharaoh, and Aharon your brother is your prophet.
Are there more than one Mosheh? Of course, not! So the word "Elohim" does NOT imply a plurality except when used to speak of multiple false deities.
As for your comments about the word "echad." I plan, YAH willing, to do a video on this soon. Suffice it to say that multiple grapes do NOT make up one grape but one cluster of grapes. Multiple heads of cattle do NOT make up one head but one herd. A husband and wife do NOT make up one person but one union (one flesh). And multiple deities do NOT make up one deity but a "pantheon" of deities. I used the Greek word, rooted in paganism, on purpose.
This is so clear even a child could understand it. One plus one plus one does NOT equal one but three. Basic math! Thanks for the comment.