Important to note that the final example has an initial velocity of 0. This means that the total energy at the top would be all gravitational potential, because the kinetic would be canceled out. Otherwise a great review thank you!
the initial energy the block starts out with can be given as mgh, as it moves down the ramp and that energy is converted to kinetic, the ramp does work to the block in the form of friction, so the kinetic energy it has at the end of the ramp is LESS than the gravitational that it started with. This means that the original gravitiational energy can be set equal to the kinetic energy minus the energy that friction takes out. hope that made sense! good luck tomorrow :)
the intro is a banger tho LMAO
you are a blessing for AP students
Important to note that the final example has an initial velocity of 0. This means that the total energy at the top would be all gravitational potential, because the kinetic would be canceled out. Otherwise a great review thank you!
why isn't it mgh=1/2mv^2 + fL at 27:04?
This is so helpful. Thank you very much!
Wait why wouldn't mgh=1/2mv^2 + fL if initial energy is greater than final energy?
i noticed that too, your correction should be correct lol. gl on the exam if you’re taking it!
the initial energy the block starts out with can be given as mgh, as it moves down the ramp and that energy is converted to kinetic, the ramp does work to the block in the form of friction, so the kinetic energy it has at the end of the ramp is LESS than the gravitational that it started with. This means that the original gravitiational energy can be set equal to the kinetic energy minus the energy that friction takes out.
hope that made sense! good luck tomorrow :)
thank you kind sir
This was incredibly helpful! Thanks so much!
Thank you
Appreciate it
such a good video
11:51
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