How to prove (-1)(-1)=1 ?? 🔥🔥😱😱|| Mathematics|| Real Analysis ||

แชร์
ฝัง
  • เผยแพร่เมื่อ 14 พ.ย. 2024

ความคิดเห็น • 7

  • @jacobgsutton
    @jacobgsutton 10 หลายเดือนก่อน

    To do this with only the field axioms I found that it can be proven like this:
    I'm using associativity and commutativity axioms freely without showing explicitly. Other than that, each step should be the application of one field axiom.
    Lemma 1: x + y = x => y = 0 where x,y in R.
    pf. x + y = x => (-x) + x + y = (-x) + x => 0 + y = 0 => y = 0. QED
    Lemma 2: x0 = 0 where x in R.
    pf. x + x0 = x(1) + x0 = x(1 + 0) = x(1) = x. Hence by lemma 1, x0 = 0. QED
    Lemma 3: -(-x) = x where x is in R.
    pf. x + (-x) = 0. Plugging -x in for x, we have (-x) + (-(-x)) = 0 => x + (-x) + (-(-x)) = 0 + x => 0 + (-(-x)) = x => -(-x) = x. QED
    Lemma 4 : -(xy) = (-x)y where x, y in R.
    pf. xy + (-(xy)) = 0 => (-x)y + xy + (-(xy)) = (-x)y + 0 => (-x + x)y + (-(xy)) = (-x)y => 0y + (-(xy)) = (-x)y and by lemma 2, 0y = 0. Hence, we have 0 + (-(xy)) = (-x)y => -(xy) = (-x)y. QED
    Theorem 1: (-1)x = -x for x in R.
    pf. (-1)x + (-((-1)x)) = 0 => (-1)x + ((-(-1))x) = 0 by lemma 4 and (-(-1))x = (1)x by lemma 3 and (1)x = x. Hence, (-1)x + ((-(-1))x) = 0 => (-1)x + x = 0 = > (-1)x + x + (-x) = 0 + (-x) => (-1)x + 0 = -x => (-1)x = -x. QED
    Corollary 1: (-1)(-1) = 1.
    pf. (-1)(-1) = -(-1) by Theorem 1 and -(-1) = 1 by lemma 3. Hence (-1)(-1) = -(-1) = 1. QED
    Let me know if you find mistakes or have a quicker route only using field axioms.

    • @measthmatic_mathematics.
      @measthmatic_mathematics.  10 หลายเดือนก่อน

      Yeah it's beautiful and there is no mistake....To approach to the prove you pick really suitable lemma's using the field axioms.
      Thank you for your comment 🥰
      BTW I don't have yet any route using field axioms for this question.

  • @ruggerplayer6054
    @ruggerplayer6054 10 หลายเดือนก่อน

    Awesome thank you

  • @krishnagyan7241
    @krishnagyan7241 10 หลายเดือนก่อน

    Pls make videos on Sir Srinivasa Ramanujan's work🙏🙏

  • @Cyrusislikeawsome
    @Cyrusislikeawsome 10 หลายเดือนก่อน

    Is 5:05 not begging the question? Can you explain this step a little more?

    • @measthmatic_mathematics.
      @measthmatic_mathematics.  10 หลายเดือนก่อน

      No, See since it is the theorem by which we are going to prove. Here if we consider a=-1 then -a will belongs to positive real number which is true because of trichotomy property. But according that theorem we can't conclude about (-1)(-1)= 1 cuz we don't know about -(-1) is equals to what till yet ...So that's why we use another theorem there which define -(-1) will be equals to what so that's not beg the question.