awsm sir . gr8 work . m from Don Bosco Univrsty .guwahati,Assam. sir hindi mei bohot asche se samja ajj orr vi vid baniye engg 4th sem ke sylbus pr.respct&love.hope ki..... 1 year oe 2 year k badd me ye chnnl youtb ka search engine ka 1st list me hoga.
Sir thanks for the video. However please note that fluid is moving due to the energy (head, pressure, velocity) created by pumping system not due to pressure drop (p1-p2) which is due to losses like frictional. This pressure drop is not at all desirable in any pipeline.
sir, I had one question. can u plz solve it for me? " One meter diameter pipe is to carry a water discharge of 1 cumec at a minimum loss of energy. What will be the permissible height of surface roughness?" It is the full question, but sth is either hidden or not given, which may be needed to be assumed. It had been asked in our exam. What values will be assumed to solve this question? Thank you! I like your videos.
Sir can you clarify me that in Darcy-Weisbach equation that {f'/density} = {f/2} (how is this derived) That means ratio of frictional resistance per unit wetted area per unit velocity to density will be equal to half of co-efficient of friction.
Sir... What about pressure... As u told in the previous class during verturimetet derivation, that If diameter increase = press increase+ velocity decrease. And vice versa. Then what about pressure here because, here all the measurements are equal Such as area,velocity, and main thing is that diameter also equal. So as your concept of previous class, pressure should also equal
There is friction coefficiant, darcy friction factor, fanning friction factor !!! I dont know which one to use....please help if you see this comment. I did not get the answer even after watching full video.
Sir, Mistake at 10:10 Friction resistance equation is based on the assumptions. Why we need to multiply with square of velocity, instead of velocity..???
because it is also an assumption that frictional resistance is proportional to nth power of velocity. some books take n=1.5 and some take n=2 so v square (In laminar frictional resistance is proportional to velocity only)
In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation (hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor). Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re), Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction (f = 16/Re). Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.
This teacher is amazing, may God gives him more knowledge n good health........... 🙂🙂🙂🙂🙂🙂
instablaster...
You are the best fluid mechanics teacher I have ever seen!!!
your videos has made my life easy and i confidently say...now i know fluid dynamics..thank u...God bless u...
Thank u sir .
Aap ki samjhane ki tarika mst hai.
👍👍👍👍👍👍👍
It happy to hear a class from a teacher who want to teach the perfect concept with good effort..
Love your videos sir. You make me understand that i can't understand in class. Thank you once again
Nice explanation sir
Much Better than our sir I have understood it sir
Sir you explain everything so patiently. Thankyou so much!
He explained it so easily 👏
Bohot help hua mujhe...sir up ki video bohot aachha ha matlb samajh aata ha...kal mera fluid ka exm he...thank you sir for this helpful video..
sir aapke vidios dekh kar fm1 me sabse jiyada number mujhe aye hai exam me.
thankiyou sir app ase hi vidios banate rahiye
Sir,Your channel deserved Millions Subscribers..
awsm sir . gr8 work . m from Don Bosco Univrsty .guwahati,Assam. sir hindi mei bohot asche se samja ajj orr vi vid baniye
engg 4th sem ke sylbus pr.respct&love.hope ki..... 1 year oe 2 year k badd me ye chnnl youtb ka search engine ka 1st list me hoga.
this man saved me back 2019
Sir ur the best teacher in the would ..
Thanks 🙏🏻 sir your teaching experience is very good 😊😊
What will be the force on pipe hangers due to self weight of pipe and fluid pressure..can you give some examples on that
Sir, the way you teach is very fantastic. Please upload navier stokes derivation.
Many adds,, they create too much disturbance 😢😢😢, by the way amazing teaching skills!!!
Thanks alot your videoes are very helpful.. now my all concepts are clear
Very easy to understand.
Nice presentation
Sir your explaning talent is amazing ,...I am getting topics quickly in my mind ..Thank you sir
Really amazing video!!! Thank u Sir!!!
🇳🇵🇳🇵🇳🇵
Best teacher in the world ...Tys Sir ....
th-cam.com/video/C1HJ4WxRpOQ/w-d-xo.html
You are the best teacher sir we love you
I don't even speak the language but I understood this better here than in class....
Sir thanks for the video.
However please note that fluid is moving due to the energy (head, pressure, velocity) created by pumping system not due to pressure drop (p1-p2) which is due to losses like frictional. This pressure drop is not at all desirable in any pipeline.
Pump Energy ,pressure energy ,kinetic energy aur potential energy me distribute ho jayega h
The way you teach it's really 👌sir I just loved it ❤
Explanation bahut hi Accha tha sir thanks sir
excellent lecture.......koi confusion nehi
Sir aap bornuli eqn pe video nahi bnaye hai kya please reply sir
Best explanation ever!!!
sir, I had one question. can u plz solve it for me?
" One meter diameter pipe is to carry a water discharge of 1 cumec at a minimum loss of energy. What will be the permissible height of surface roughness?"
It is the full question, but sth is either hidden or not given, which may be needed to be assumed. It had been asked in our exam.
What values will be assumed to solve this question? Thank you!
I like your videos.
Simply , sir you the best ever
Sir Pls share your skin care routine.
Thank you sir..
Really i m appreciating from your videos
Good to see your video
P2 ka direction opposite kyu hai? Pls explain
Thanks sir bohot a66e se samajh paya ...😇😇
Sir ,
Flow regime ka bi ek video bana dijiye
Bhot meherbani hogi apki...
Vo topic ni smjh aa rha
Sir i have found flv2/2gd and 2fLv2/gd. Which one is correct?? Help
Sir can give more important questions abou fmhm
th-cam.com/video/C1HJ4WxRpOQ/w-d-xo.html
Ur classes are damn good
Explanation way is nice keep it up sr plz complete fm first
Sir aap ko kisi motivation ki jarurt nhi h aap amazing ho or rhoge
I like your way of teaching.
Keep going on.
U made it easy to understand
Sir can you clarify me that in Darcy-Weisbach equation that {f'/density} = {f/2} (how is this derived)
That means ratio of frictional resistance per unit wetted area per unit velocity to density will be equal to half of co-efficient of friction.
😮
love ur explanation . iwould reccomend to use a bigger class room seems conjusted but content is great and helpful
If fluid is viscous then how can we use continuity equation here
make videos on SFD and BMD
May add plz
Super sir muje aaj pata chala yeh equation bas kal FM paper aram se jaaye..
sir bahot bahot badhiya ❤️❤️❤️
Sir God bless you 🙏🙏🙏🙏
You are Great teacher
Whay P2 pressure is comes??, please explain this,, 🥺
Please how did you get the lamda for the final head loss?
amazing vid ,watching from nepal
Sir ...Bow Down To You 🙏
Sir how Velocity will be same at 1 and 2 if dia is same?
P2 ka direction opposite kaise liya? Can you explain that?
so for headloss calc in pipe, when should i use Hazen poiseuille eq and when to use the Darcy weisbach eq???
Great Video
I loved your teaching sir, thanks.
Material science K bhi lectures daito ho sir ?
Sir why P2 has reverse direction ? Please explain
Sir plz make videos of Stanton and
Moody diagram
Sir...
What about pressure...
As u told in the previous class during verturimetet derivation, that
If diameter increase = press increase+ velocity decrease.
And vice versa.
Then what about pressure here because, here all the measurements are equal
Such as area,velocity, and main thing is that diameter also equal. So as your concept of previous class, pressure should also equal
There is friction coefficiant, darcy friction factor, fanning friction factor !!! I dont know which one to use....please help if you see this comment. I did not get the answer even after watching full video.
Congratulations for quality. There are many details
thanks sir you r a good teacher
Dear sir pleas thoda bade board use kijiye jise ki jyada se jyada concept board pe dikh sakhe
Sir aap achhe padhate h..👌
Sir meko plzz smjhaiye ki coefficient of friction aap isme kaise laye. Or f aata kha se h. Plzz Sir. Mujhe aapke ans ke liye kab tk wait krna pad ga.
Really well explained sir
Great sirjee..........😊😊😊😊
You should give link to previous video in which you told about datum line..In description
V good explanation...thnk u v much
Sir refrence book rk jain ki process follow kiyi to nahi jamtaa kyaa?
can i use darcy weisbach eq for both flow for ex. turbulent and laminar.
impressive sir nice explanation
Very nice video
Nice video sir
Nyc video gd luck sir
Terrific...sir
very nice explained
Sir Hows that F' /p = f/2
best teaching level
14.54sec?? How do we know??
Thankyou sir you are very sweet 😊😊
Sir,
Mistake at 10:10
Friction resistance equation is based on the assumptions.
Why we need to multiply with square of velocity, instead of velocity..???
because it is also an assumption that frictional resistance is proportional to nth power of velocity. some books take n=1.5 and some take n=2 so v square
(In laminar frictional resistance is proportional to velocity only)
Plz explain....how( f'/density=f/2 ).
In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation
(hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor).
Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re),
Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction
(f = 16/Re).
Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.
Sir a is question ka explaination nahi hai..
Perfect teacher👍👍👍
V1^2 v2^2 cancel hogaya to uske niche ka zg kaha gaya ??
Good job
Teaching skill👌👌👌
What is parameter sir?
very useful video. thank u sir
Can you make a video on velocity of sound waves
Love your teaching sir🙂
th-cam.com/video/C1HJ4WxRpOQ/w-d-xo.html
sir aap zoom aap me pdhate ho
Super explanation sir thank u so much sir
Sir what is the unit of frictional resistance
Fprime not satisfying this equatin in form of units.
Scientist de gya vo thik hai but kaise