In 1st question :- a polynomial and its derivative is always continuous and bdd so it satisfies Lipschitz condition Hence there is a unique solution in an interval containing 0 (d) is true
Sir please making vidios for super tricks solution of algebra group theory and ring theory .....other vidio are very helpful ...so thank you so much sir ❤
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Nice explanation sir ❤
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Answer to last ques " blows up in finite time" is option B not D, sir plz recheck
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It's very helpful video for us.
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Superhlb
Sir in 1st question
Since every polynomial is continuous atleast one solution will exists. How is possible for no solution?
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In 1st question :- a polynomial and its derivative is always continuous and bdd so it satisfies Lipschitz condition
Hence there is a unique solution in an interval containing 0 (d) is true
🙏🙏🙏 Thanks sir
50:16
Sir please making vidios for super tricks solution of algebra group theory and ring theory .....other vidio are very helpful ...so thank you so much sir ❤
Nahi banayenge sir
sir please make videos for solutions of ring theory and group theory
Sir has no videos on Group and Ring theory, he has mastery in applied portions + Real Analysis+ CA + Linear Algebra
Thank you so much sir for helping us 🙏🙏
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Result @7:03 is incorrect for A
1:06:33 I think it's z=1/1+t
Yes you are right.
1st ka d hoga
But sir e^z is unbounded because it is entire
No bro e^z is bounded
My dear brother who told you that e^z is bounded its unbounded
@@VlogswithJay Haa yes...
Bounded or unbounded ?
@@VlogswithJay if there is no condition for real and imaginary parts then it is unbounded
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