prof if i'm right the balance of far value adjustment in the end of year 20x5 is credit in 15 not 45 cause you debited it by 5 then debited it by 25 so the balance should to be credit by 15
That was for the previous example. With the following scenario, there was no sale of the securities ( since we still have three investment instead of two)
it appear that the presentation is not right. the portfolio went down from 786k to 762k, that is goin to the left, which is unrealised loss of 24k in 20x7
Thanks Farhat!
Great explanation
Glad it was helpful! Please connect with me: linktr.ee/farhatlectures
What about passive influence type securities not traded in secondary markets?
prof if i'm right the balance of far value adjustment in the end of year 20x5 is credit in 15 not 45 cause you debited it by 5 then debited it by 25 so the balance should to be credit by 15
That was for the previous example. With the following scenario, there was no sale of the securities ( since we still have three investment instead of two)
I realized the fair value total in the increased in fair value part was not updated which was why I was so confused 😂
it appear that the presentation is not right. the portfolio went down from 786k to 762k, that is goin to the left, which is unrealised loss of 24k in 20x7
Want too collab partner 😎