The term "rapture" is a NOUN... the term "caught up" or "harpazo (Greek)" is a VERB. A person has to go to school to understand the difference between the two. Peter tells us that "unlearned" individuals twist Paul's teaching on this matter as they do all of Scripture and then he calls them "wicked" and tells us not to fall from our own steadfastness... 2 Peter 3:15-17. Why would Peter pinpoint Paul's teaching on this matter and not his own, or Christ's or John's? Jesus said, "My sheep hear my voice and the voice of another they will not follow"... John 10... This is very simple to understand by all camps.... so honesty requires that a person look at what man states vs. what Jesus states. In doing so a person will realize to whom they follow. To be Christ's sheep is to follow what He says... to be man's sheep is to follow what man says. Jesus directly stated that He comes after the tribulation... Matt 24:29-31... Of course, here again all camps are well aware of this passage, and Jesus directly made this statement. Therefore in order for a rapture to be taught that suggest the exact opposite of Christ, Scripture needs to state a rapture prior to tribulation... otherwise, the doctrine does not come from God, but man. To teach the opposite of Christ is to be antiC... 1 John 2:18,19. It's important to note that John shows in this passage that the antiC's come from within the church. So clarity on this point is extremely important. Jesus, Peter and Paul all warn us of deception concerning His return... Matt 24;3,4, 2 Peter 3:15-17, 2 Thess 2:1-3. Therefore, If we are told to "take heed that no man deceive us on this matter", the truth on this matter is very obtainable, and is not a matter of interpretation, but a matter of loving the truth or rejecting it. Paul makes a point of informing us in the context of eschatology that God Himself puts a strong delusion over those who do not love the truth... 2 Thess 2:1-12. Therefore, the end conclusion is not interpretation, but that of deception or loving the truth. There can only be one correct view,. The other camps are in a state of delusion... in which God Himself has initiated. You simply cannot argue with the other camp... for to do so is to argue with the delusion that God has brought upon them. There are two main passages that are addressed when a rapture is first taught... 1 Cor 15 and 1 Thess 4. Of course all camps know that the term "rapture" is not directly used in Scripture, so it must be introduced. This in itself presents several problems. First the definition of what the rapture is must first be defined. Second, the name that Paul directly calls it in these passages must be directly ignored. In 1 Cor 15:42 Paul directly calls the event "the resurrection of the dead" and nine verses later he informs us how people are changed in a moment in the twinkling of an eye at the event he directly called "the resurrection of the dead". This is the same exact event addressed in 1 Thess 4:13_18 and Paul starts out by telling us that he doesn't want us ignorant about what happens to the dead. Of course, the rapturist believes that the resurrection of the dead occurs at the rapture, but it is important to present the unbiblical term, rapture, rather than the direct term that Paul uses. Why is that? Why is it so important to change the name? Let's dig a deeper... The Scripture states a lot about the resurrection of the dead, however when a rapture event is introduced, we are told that Paul revealed this "Mystery", and 1 Cor 15:51-52 is referenced in order to highlight the term "mystery". We are now presented this mysterious concept of a rapture. The problem persists, however, that Paul revealed the mystery of how people are changed at the event he directly called "the resurrection of the dead'. The resurrection of the dead may have first been recorded by John 14:12 in which Job tells us that 'man dies and does not rise again until the heavens are destroyed". Jesus then expounds on this in Matt 24:35-42 in which He tells us that the heavens will pass away.... and of THAT DAY no man knows the day or the hour... and one will be taken and the other one left. Peter then quotes Christ... 2 Peter 3:10, and tells us that Jesus comes like a thief in the night when the heavens are destroyed with a great noise. Of course, a rapture event occurring prior to the heavens being destroyed would eliminated the element of surprise of "like a thief" declared to occur when the heavens are destroyed. Rev 20:4-6 informs us that there are two resurrections.... one prior to the 1000 year reign of Christ and one at the end. This passage directly tells us that those martyred for not taking the mark are resurrected at the FIRST resurrection. In order to teach a rapture, one must eliminate the term "first" from the book of Revelation and replace it with 2nd. Rev 22:18,19 tells us that those who add to the book will have the plagues of the book added unto them, and those who subtract will have their names subtracted from the book of life. Theses are extremely harsh words of Scripture.... names subtracted from the book of Life.... teaching the opposite of Christ.... antiC... The truth is extremely simple to understand. To follow after a rapture is to reject Christ. We must believe Jesus to be saved The terms "rapture" and "second coming" do not exist in the Word of God and were created for the purpose of redirect, division and deception. They were needed to divide the "resurrection of the dead" into multiple events. The resurrection of the dead only happens once prior to the 1000 year reign of Christ and it includes those martyred for not taking the mark... Rev 20:4-6. The term "the resurrection of the dead" maintains the focus on the dead... whereas the new term "rapture" REDIRECTS the attention onto the living. Paul doesn't want us ignorant of what happens to the dead... 1 Thess 4:13-18... The idea of a rapture maintains the ignorance Paul was hoping to remove.... Paul directly states that these resurrected bodies do not go to heaven...1 Cor 15:12-55... see vs. 50..... yet the concept of a rapture insists the opposite.. that everyone goes to heaven for a period of time. Why would the dead who return with Christ... 1 Thess 4:14... to get their terrestrial realm Earth suits returned to them... resurrected from the dead.... now need these earth suit in Heaven... especially when Paul directly stated that they don't go there?
The term "rapture" is a NOUN... the term "caught up" or "harpazo (Greek)" is a VERB. A person has to go to school to understand the difference between the two. Peter tells us that "unlearned" individuals twist Paul's teaching on this matter as they do all of Scripture and then he calls them "wicked" and tells us not to fall from our own steadfastness... 2 Peter 3:15-17. Why would Peter pinpoint Paul's teaching on this matter and not his own, or Christ's or John's?
Jesus said, "My sheep hear my voice and the voice of another they will not follow"... John 10... This is very simple to understand by all camps.... so honesty requires that a person look at what man states vs. what Jesus states. In doing so a person will realize to whom they follow. To be Christ's sheep is to follow what He says... to be man's sheep is to follow what man says. Jesus directly stated that He comes after the tribulation... Matt 24:29-31... Of course, here again all camps are well aware of this passage, and Jesus directly made this statement. Therefore in order for a rapture to be taught that suggest the exact opposite of Christ, Scripture needs to state a rapture prior to tribulation... otherwise, the doctrine does not come from God, but man. To teach the opposite of Christ is to be antiC... 1 John 2:18,19. It's important to note that John shows in this passage that the antiC's come from within the church. So clarity on this point is extremely important.
Jesus, Peter and Paul all warn us of deception concerning His return... Matt 24;3,4, 2 Peter 3:15-17, 2 Thess 2:1-3. Therefore, If we are told to "take heed that no man deceive us on this matter", the truth on this matter is very obtainable, and is not a matter of interpretation, but a matter of loving the truth or rejecting it. Paul makes a point of informing us in the context of eschatology that God Himself puts a strong delusion over those who do not love the truth... 2 Thess 2:1-12. Therefore, the end conclusion is not interpretation, but that of deception or loving the truth. There can only be one correct view,. The other camps are in a state of delusion... in which God Himself has initiated. You simply cannot argue with the other camp... for to do so is to argue with the delusion that God has brought upon them.
There are two main passages that are addressed when a rapture is first taught... 1 Cor 15 and 1 Thess 4. Of course all camps know that the term "rapture" is not directly used in Scripture, so it must be introduced. This in itself presents several problems. First the definition of what the rapture is must first be defined. Second, the name that Paul directly calls it in these passages must be directly ignored. In 1 Cor 15:42 Paul directly calls the event "the resurrection of the dead" and nine verses later he informs us how people are changed in a moment in the twinkling of an eye at the event he directly called "the resurrection of the dead". This is the same exact event addressed in 1 Thess 4:13_18 and Paul starts out by telling us that he doesn't want us ignorant about what happens to the dead. Of course, the rapturist believes that the resurrection of the dead occurs at the rapture, but it is important to present the unbiblical term, rapture, rather than the direct term that Paul uses. Why is that? Why is it so important to change the name? Let's dig a deeper...
The Scripture states a lot about the resurrection of the dead, however when a rapture event is introduced, we are told that Paul revealed this "Mystery", and 1 Cor 15:51-52 is referenced in order to highlight the term "mystery". We are now presented this mysterious concept of a rapture. The problem persists, however, that Paul revealed the mystery of how people are changed at the event he directly called "the resurrection of the dead'. The resurrection of the dead may have first been recorded by John 14:12 in which Job tells us that 'man dies and does not rise again until the heavens are destroyed". Jesus then expounds on this in Matt 24:35-42 in which He tells us that the heavens will pass away.... and of THAT DAY no man knows the day or the hour... and one will be taken and the other one left. Peter then quotes Christ... 2 Peter 3:10, and tells us that Jesus comes like a thief in the night when the heavens are destroyed with a great noise. Of course, a rapture event occurring prior to the heavens being destroyed would eliminated the element of surprise of "like a thief" declared to occur when the heavens are destroyed. Rev 20:4-6 informs us that there are two resurrections.... one prior to the 1000 year reign of Christ and one at the end. This passage directly tells us that those martyred for not taking the mark are resurrected at the FIRST resurrection. In order to teach a rapture, one must eliminate the term "first" from the book of Revelation and replace it with 2nd. Rev 22:18,19 tells us that those who add to the book will have the plagues of the book added unto them, and those who subtract will have their names subtracted from the book of life.
Theses are extremely harsh words of Scripture.... names subtracted from the book of Life.... teaching the opposite of Christ.... antiC... The truth is extremely simple to understand. To follow after a rapture is to reject Christ. We must believe Jesus to be saved
The terms "rapture" and "second coming" do not exist in the Word of God and were created for the purpose of redirect, division and deception. They were needed to divide the "resurrection of the dead" into multiple events. The resurrection of the dead only happens once prior to the 1000 year reign of Christ and it includes those martyred for not taking the mark... Rev 20:4-6. The term "the resurrection of the dead" maintains the focus on the dead... whereas the new term "rapture" REDIRECTS the attention onto the living. Paul doesn't want us ignorant of what happens to the dead... 1 Thess 4:13-18... The idea of a rapture maintains the ignorance Paul was hoping to remove.... Paul directly states that these resurrected bodies do not go to heaven...1 Cor 15:12-55... see vs. 50..... yet the concept of a rapture insists the opposite.. that everyone goes to heaven for a period of time. Why would the dead who return with Christ... 1 Thess 4:14... to get their terrestrial realm Earth suits returned to them... resurrected from the dead.... now need these earth suit in Heaven... especially when Paul directly stated that they don't go there?