Doubt Q1: Sir, why have we directly multiplied probabilities to arrive at a single P1 instead of multiplying probabilities at Summation Px level? How is the return (Xbar) arrived at by multiplying Probability beforehand like in Q1 same as multiplying Probability with X that was calculated basis D1+P1-P0/P0?
SML - 30:46
Characteristic Line - 31:49
Capital Market Line - 34:08
Requested you 1 day before and here you are, thanks a lot sir for this video
Own reference
44:54 main part.
Incredibly thankful to you sir! 🙇🏼♀
Much needed. Thank you sir
Much Much needed, thank you sir. Please keep uploading rest of the AFM chapters too
Thank you so much sir🤗
Doubt Q1: Sir, why have we directly multiplied probabilities to arrive at a single P1 instead of multiplying probabilities at Summation Px level? How is the return (Xbar) arrived at by multiplying Probability beforehand like in Q1 same as multiplying Probability with X that was calculated basis D1+P1-P0/P0?
Sir can you please update FR lecture also with imp question
Thank u sir please release same for Derivatives too
30:39 portfolio beta
Thank you so much Sir 😊
Thanks a lot sir!
AFM study material says Markowitz model as modern theory..not Sharpe 🤔
Can we get the soft copy of the notes it will be helpful. Thank you sir
These are not revision notes, its extract of his paid book.
Pls upload mtp Rtp November 2024
31:16
SIR PLEASE UPLOAD A VIDEO FOR FOREX WITH IMPORTANT QUESTIONS . WILL HELP A LOT
Thanks a lot sir, waiting for more important questions solving videos 😊
Loosely speaking