Best way of understanding.. i watched so many videos but THIS IS BEST OF ALL...Thank you sir...Ur presentation and way to explaining the things are awesome...
"Thank you very much sumit bhandari If you wish to get my Financial Video lectures daily direct in your "WhatsApp", then watsapp me "TH-cam LECTURES" to +917736022001. Also do not forget to check out the complete course on this topic - FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT - A COMPLETE STUDY - www.udemy.com/financial-management-a-complete-study/?couponCode=YTBFMCS14 - All my courses are available in my web www.carajaclasses.com "
arbitrage process is a whole different concept well kinda and you guys comments are 6 yrs 5 yrs 4 yrs old so i am asuming you all have figured it out more than me at this point of time
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sir, so much thankful to you, i spent a couple of hours in Khan&Jain, still found it a lot confusing to understand. i though to visit youtube and learn it. went through 2 videos, your being the second one and i understood it real good!! it was so nice of you to make such a wonderful detailed explanation to help others. thank you once again sir!! you saved a lot of time for me, no need to study those lengthy 3-4 pages. spending 10 mins on this video is more than sufficient. :)
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aaka jaiswal I’m glad that you liked my lecture. If u r Interested in getting my Financial Video Lectures direct in your Whatsapp at regular intervals, Msg me YES through this Whatsapp link - wa.me/917736022001
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You borrow so that you can invest in the unlevered firm N as 10% of unlevered firm's equity = 20000 But you only sold 10% of levered firm M = 11304.30 so you need more money and you borrow 10% debt from M = 10% of 100000 = 10000 Total funds available to u = 10000 + 11304.30 = 21304.30 Now you can invest in equity shares of N and have a surplus remaining (21304.30 - 20000 u invested) = 1304.30 surplus
@@keshviwadhwa1845 we r simply making equal debts in both cases.....in m ...he is a shareholder worth 11304.3₹ and also...as shareholders are owners they will have debt obligation...of 10% ie ...10000 ....so inorder to compare N co he should sell the shares and should have a same debt....to understand which option is best for his as an investor
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Why would he borrow 10000 from the bank , since he has 11304.3 available with him but needs to hold 10% in The unlevered ie 20000 . So shouldn't he just borrow the difference between 20000 and 11304.3 instead of 10000 ?
Sal Bhonsle that's the question which bothers most students. But the excess has been borrowed to show the advantage of arbitrage. So at the end the investor is left with a "surplus"
basically to show he lands in surplus by having same level of stake in other firm as well.. borrowing exactly for the difference would not lead to any surplus but same level of Return
basically to show he lands in surplus by having same level of stake in other firm as well.. borrowing exactly for the difference would not lead to any surplus but same level of Return
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7:05 how Rs. 21304 will be the exact 10% of 200,000. ??? It is 10.6% Earning proportion will be 2120. Deducting debt 700. Then 1420 will be the respective earning. It is Rs.120/- surplus. 9% surplus is neglected.
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I am glad that you liked my lectures. You can also Whatsapp me through this link for any queries - or simple text LECTURES to subscribe to our Whatsapp Lectures wa.me/917736022001
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Hey, I am glad that you liked my lecture. I hope my course on FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT - A COMPLETE STUDY With 500+ lectures, 70 hours content would be more helpful for you in understanding the entire subject in depth and here is link for course for just $10 (Rs.660/-): www.udemy.com/financial-management-a-complete-study/?couponCode=YTBSPLPROMO
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I am glad that you liked my lectures. You can also Whatsapp me through this link for any queries - or simple text LECTURES to subscribe to our Whatsapp Lectures wa.me/917736022001
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"Thank you very much surendra kushwaha If you wish to get my Financial Video lectures daily direct in your "WhatsApp", then watsapp me "TH-cam LECTURES" to +917736022001. Also do not forget to check out the complete course on this topic - FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT - A COMPLETE STUDY - www.udemy.com/financial-management-a-complete-study/?couponCode=YTBFMCS14 - All my courses are available in my web www.carajaclasses.com "
Shivam Mahajan basically to show he lands in surplus by having same level of stake in other firm as well.. borrowing exactly for the difference would not lead to any surplus but same level of Return
@@carajaclasses amazed with your quick response to my comment, However sir if shares are sold in the market . Then the equity in capital structure is simply replaced with a new shareholder( amount remaining same). And risk also automatically gets transferred to the new shareholder . So why do we have to assume that the person who is selling the shares has to borrow debt and be liable for the interest.
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It assumes that the investor would be able to borrow at the same rate at which it has invested in debt in the levered firm which here in this case is7%
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Best way of understanding.. i watched so many videos but THIS IS BEST OF ALL...Thank you sir...Ur presentation and way to explaining the things are awesome...
"Thank you very much sumit bhandari If you wish to get my Financial Video lectures daily direct in your "WhatsApp", then watsapp me "TH-cam LECTURES" to +917736022001. Also do not forget to check out the complete course on this topic - FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT - A COMPLETE STUDY - www.udemy.com/financial-management-a-complete-study/?couponCode=YTBFMCS14 - All my courses are available in my web www.carajaclasses.com "
I don't know if I'm a noob or something... but the second half went over my head.
Mee too
same here :(
😂😂 same
arbitrage process is a whole different concept well kinda and you guys comments are 6 yrs 5 yrs 4 yrs old so i am asuming you all have figured it out more than me at this point of time
This 8 minutes , clears my all doubt about the arbitrage
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"Never stop learning, because life never stops teaching"
Can you please explain why we are borrowing 10000 to acquire 10% debt at 7%. I'm not understanding that part.
Thank you so much, sir. The way you deliver the lectures is totally exceptional. In 8.41 minutes, you cleared all my doubts. Keep growing ✌
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Welcome to CA Raja Classes💐
If you are looking for Online Courses in any of the following areas,
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sir, so much thankful to you, i spent a couple of hours in Khan&Jain, still found it a lot confusing to understand.
i though to visit youtube and learn it. went through 2 videos, your being the second one and i understood it real good!!
it was so nice of you to make such a wonderful detailed explanation to help others.
thank you once again sir!!
you saved a lot of time for me, no need to study those lengthy 3-4 pages. spending 10 mins on this video is more than sufficient.
:)
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Sir your explanation is mindblasting... Awesome brilliant.... Hats off u
aaka jaiswal I’m glad that you liked my lecture. If u r Interested in getting my Financial Video Lectures direct in your Whatsapp at regular intervals, Msg me YES through this Whatsapp link -
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It was a clear explanation of arbitrage process... Tq sir
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how is investment in levered firm fetching 10%return?
After doing arbitrage process ..the value of levered and unlevered firm will be equal isn't it?
Kindly make video on arbitrage gains where taxes are applicable
Thanks a lot sir
It help me alot
Keep uploading such videos
"Thank you very much Kushal Shah If you wish to get my Financial Video lectures daily direct in your "WhatsApp", then watsapp me "TH-cam LECTURES" to +917736022001. Also do not forget to check out the complete course on this topic - FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT - A COMPLETE STUDY - www.udemy.com/financial-management-a-complete-study/?couponCode=YTBFMCS14 - All my courses are available in my web www.carajaclasses.com "
Yes sir ....
thanks for your nice explanation
6:38 Sir can we know the reason that why such assumption is taken to borrow 10 % of debt ?
You borrow so that you can invest in the unlevered firm N as 10% of unlevered firm's equity = 20000
But you only sold 10% of levered firm M = 11304.30 so you need more money and you borrow 10% debt from M = 10% of 100000 = 10000
Total funds available to u = 10000 + 11304.30 = 21304.30
Now you can invest in equity shares of N and have a surplus remaining (21304.30 - 20000 u invested) = 1304.30 surplus
But can't it just borrow 20,000 - 11304, why 10,000?
It would be great if you can explain this
@@keshviwadhwa1845 we r simply making equal debts in both cases.....in m ...he is a shareholder worth 11304.3₹ and also...as shareholders are owners they will have debt obligation...of 10% ie ...10000 ....so inorder to compare N co he should sell the shares and should have a same debt....to understand which option is best for his as an investor
Sir, how do we know that we should borrow ₹10000 only? I mean we could've borrowed more money and invested in the unlevered firm to get more money.
Remember that you have to pay more interest too
Sir while calculating return on investment in leveredco M the ke is 11.5% not 10%
how is the investment in levered firm fetching 10% return?
Best teacher for ever
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That was a great explanation of the arbitrage process, thank you!
Hey,
I am glad that you liked my lecture. I hope my
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Why should he borrow 10k to invest in N co? Can’t he invest the realised amount only in the N co?
The risk shouldn’t change. In the levered firm he had a debt risk, so while going to the ul firm he should have the same debt risk
Dear Sir, could you please explain, the reverse arbitrage process i.e. if the investor switch his from unlevered firm to levered?
Why would he borrow 10000 from the bank , since he has 11304.3 available with him but needs to hold 10% in The unlevered ie 20000 . So shouldn't he just borrow the difference between 20000 and 11304.3 instead of 10000 ?
Sal Bhonsle that's the question which bothers most students. But the excess has been borrowed to show the advantage of arbitrage. So at the end the investor is left with a "surplus"
basically to show he lands in surplus by having same level of stake in other firm as well.. borrowing exactly for the difference would not lead to any surplus but same level of Return
basically to show he lands in surplus by having same level of stake in other firm as well.. borrowing exactly for the difference would not lead to any surplus but same level of Return
Great explanation
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7:05 how Rs. 21304 will be the exact 10% of 200,000. ??? It is 10.6% Earning proportion will be 2120. Deducting debt 700. Then 1420 will be the respective earning. It is Rs.120/- surplus. 9% surplus is neglected.
Nice explanation sir. But why we borrowed 10000rs?
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At least explain where you got the value of debt from
Why is it earnings before interest minus interest?....Should not it be after minus interest?
Ke= netincome(EBIT-Interest)/value of equity ==> value of equity= netincome/Ke
confused..... one value or one firm having higher value and other value having ...?
Sir please solve the problem on Arbitrage process
Impressed ✌🏻✌🏻
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very neat presentation
Hey,
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CA N Raja Natarajan
Dear sir
do we have to pay for the watsapp lectures?
Arnab Nandi No
Awsome sir... Thank you
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thanks sir
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Thankyou sir .
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Thanks alot sir
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Ty sir neat presentation :)
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Good work sir
"Thank you very much surendra kushwaha If you wish to get my Financial Video lectures daily direct in your "WhatsApp", then watsapp me "TH-cam LECTURES" to +917736022001. Also do not forget to check out the complete course on this topic - FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT - A COMPLETE STUDY - www.udemy.com/financial-management-a-complete-study/?couponCode=YTBFMCS14 - All my courses are available in my web www.carajaclasses.com "
you did not explain why the guy would borrow debt. classic learning by heart people you are .
Shivam Mahajan
basically to show he lands in surplus by having same level of stake in other firm as well.. borrowing exactly for the difference would not lead to any surplus but same level of Return
@@carajaclasses amazed with your quick response to my comment, However sir if shares are sold in the market . Then the equity in capital structure is simply replaced with a new shareholder( amount remaining same). And risk also automatically gets transferred to the new shareholder . So why do we have to assume that the person who is selling the shares has to borrow debt and be liable for the interest.
@@shivammahajan9051you answered your own question this is an assumption to show the arbitrage process MM hypothised
Thank you
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How the bank rate is exactly 7% ? Is there any logic ?
It assumes that the investor would be able to borrow at the same rate at which it has invested in debt in the levered firm which here in this case is7%
Tqq so much...
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